ATI RN
FHEA Drugs That Affect the Cardiovascular System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following consideration about type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia is True:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia is characterized by increased chylomicrons and triglycerides in the serum, which decrease with a fat-free diet. 2. High- and low-density lipoproteins decrease with a fat-free diet, contrary to other types of hyperlipoproteinemia. 3. Tissue lipoprotein lipase activity is decreased in type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia. 4. Other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the characteristics and pathophysiology of type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia. Summary: Choice A is correct as it aligns with the hallmark features of type I familial hyperlipoproteinemia. Choices B, C, and D contain inaccuracies regarding the lipid profile, genetic basis, and response to dietary changes in this condition.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the oral calcium preparations is often the preparation of choice:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Calcium carbonate. It is often the preparation of choice due to its high calcium content (40%). This means that a smaller dose can provide the required amount of elemental calcium compared to other options. Additionally, calcium carbonate is well-absorbed in an acidic environment, making it suitable for individuals with normal gastric acid production. Incorrect choices: B: Calcium lactate has a lower calcium content (13%) compared to calcium carbonate, requiring a higher dose to achieve the same calcium intake. C: Calcium phosphate has a lower calcium content (25%) compared to calcium carbonate, making it less efficient in providing elemental calcium. D: Calcium citrate has a lower calcium content (17%) compared to calcium carbonate and is better absorbed in individuals with low gastric acid production. However, in general, calcium carbonate is preferred for its higher calcium content and cost-effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
Acetazolamide (Diamox) acts at this nephron site:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase in the proximal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased bicarbonate reabsorption and subsequent diuresis. This mechanism occurs at the site of action for the drug, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acetazolamide does not act directly at these sites within the nephron.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amphotericin B. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used for systemic and deep mycotic infections due to its broad spectrum and effectiveness. It works by binding to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, leading to cell membrane disruption. Co-trimoxazole (A) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections. Griseofulvin (B) is used for superficial fungal infections like ringworm. Nitrofungin (D) is an antifungal medication used for topical treatment. Therefore, Amphotericin B is the most appropriate choice for systemic and deep mycotic infections.
Question 5 of 5
Tick the drug used for trichomoniasis treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for trichomoniasis due to its efficacy against the parasite. 2. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. 3. Suramin is used for African sleeping sickness, not trichomoniasis. 4. Pyrimethamine is used for malaria, not trichomoniasis. 5. Tetracycline is used for bacterial infections, not trichomoniasis. Summary: Metronidazole is the correct choice for trichomoniasis treatment due to its specific mechanism of action against the parasite. Suramin, pyrimethamine, and tetracycline are used for different infections and are not effective for trichomoniasis.