ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment 9th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following conditions is NOT a typical finding of hyperprolactinemia in a 47-year-old premenopausal woman?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer D: Acne is NOT a typical finding of hyperprolactinemia in a 47-year-old premenopausal woman because hyperprolactinemia usually presents with symptoms related to hormonal imbalance, such as irregular menstrual cycles (oligomenorrhea), breast changes (gynecomastia), and excess body hair (hirsutism). Acne is not directly associated with elevated prolactin levels. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Hirsutism - Hirsutism is a common finding in hyperprolactinemia due to hormonal imbalances. B: Gynecomastia - Gynecomastia can occur in hyperprolactinemia due to the suppression of testosterone. C: Oligomenorrhea - Oligomenorrhea is a typical finding in hyperprolactinemia due to disruptions in the menstrual cycle.
Question 2 of 5
Symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation are associated with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gastroesophageal reflux. Heartburn and regurgitation are classic symptoms of GERD, where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus. This causes a burning sensation in the chest and sour taste in the mouth. Hiatal hernia (A) can contribute to GERD but is not directly associated with these symptoms. Peptic ulcer disease (C) typically presents with stomach pain, not heartburn. Esophageal cancer (D) may present with difficulty swallowing and weight loss, not just heartburn and regurgitation. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following drugs is not contraindicated for concurrent use with warfarin (Coumadin)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): Amoxicillin does not significantly interact with warfarin. It is an antibiotic that works through a different mechanism than warfarin and is not known to affect its anticoagulant activity. Summary of incorrect choices: B (Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole): This drug combination can enhance the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. C (Ciprofloxacin): Ciprofloxacin can increase warfarin's effects, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. D (Clarithromycin): Clarithromycin can interact with warfarin, potentially increasing the risk of bleeding.
Question 4 of 5
Unilateral rhinitis could be caused by all of the following except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A deviated septum. Unilateral rhinitis typically refers to inflammation in one nostril. A deviated septum is a physical obstruction in the nasal passage that affects both nostrils, not just one. Choices A, B, and C can all cause unilateral rhinitis as they specifically affect one side of the nasal passage. A foreign body in the nasal canal, a nasal polyp, and drug-induced rhinitis can all lead to inflammation and symptoms in one nostril.
Question 5 of 5
An 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is at increased risk of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urinary tract infections. Prostatic hypertrophy can cause obstruction of the urinary tract, leading to urinary retention and stasis, which increases the risk of urinary tract infections. Constipation (choice A) and fecal incontinence (choice B) are more related to issues with the gastrointestinal system rather than prostatic hypertrophy. Prostate cancer (choice D) is a separate condition that is not directly linked to prostatic hypertrophy. Therefore, the increased risk for an 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is urinary tract infections due to urinary obstruction.