Which of the following conditions is characterized by degenerative changes in the intervertebral discs, leading to narrowing of the disc space and osteophyte formation?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following conditions is characterized by degenerative changes in the intervertebral discs, leading to narrowing of the disc space and osteophyte formation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Spondylosis is a condition characterized by degenerative changes in the intervertebral discs, leading to narrowing of the disc space and the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs). This degenerative process commonly occurs with aging and can cause symptoms such as neck or back pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Spondylosis is a common finding on imaging studies like X-rays and MRI scans in individuals over the age of 50 and is a natural part of the aging process of the spine.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain that occurs during heavy lifting or physical exertion and is relieved by rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show transient ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The given patient's symptoms of chest pain that occurs during heavy lifting or physical exertion and is relieved by rest are consistent with stable angina. Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain that occurs with exertion and is typically relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The transient ST-segment depression on ECG is also a common finding in patients with stable angina, which reflects myocardial ischemia during episodes of chest pain triggered by exertion. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion that is of increasing frequency, severity, or duration. Acute myocardial infarction is associated with persistent ST-segment elevation or new Q-waves on ECG, and Prinzmetal's angina is characterized by chest pain at rest due to coronary artery spasm rather than exertion.

Question 3 of 9

A patient is admitted with a suspected myocardial infarction. Which cardiac biomarker is most specific for myocardial injury?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Troponin is the most specific cardiac biomarker for myocardial injury. Troponin I and Troponin T are proteins released into the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart muscle, making them highly indicative of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within a few hours of cardiac injury, peak within 24-48 hours, and can remain elevated for up to 2 weeks. Troponin is considered the gold standard biomarker for the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction due to its high specificity and sensitivity for cardiac injury. In contrast, Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) and myoglobin are also used in diagnosing myocardial infarction but are less specific than troponin. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is primarily used in heart failure diagnosis and management, and its levels are not specific to myocardial injury.

Question 4 of 9

The first standard-step-in oxygen therapy that the nurse should do is which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Before initiating any oxygen therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to first assess the patient's condition. This step allows the nurse to determine the patient's oxygen saturation levels, respiratory rate, lung sounds, and overall respiratory status. Understanding the patient's baseline condition helps in selecting the appropriate oxygen delivery method and flow rate that will best meet the patient's needs. Additionally, assessing the patient's condition allows the nurse to monitor the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and make any necessary adjustments throughout the treatment process. Therefore, assessing the patient's condition is the necessary first step in providing safe and effective oxygen therapy.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye, along with a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels, is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). In CRAO, there is a sudden blockage of the central retinal artery, leading to ischemia of the retina. The cherry-red spot represents the preserved choroid blood flow against the ischemic retina. The attenuated retinal vessels are a result of decreased blood flow in the retinal circulation. This condition is considered an ophthalmic emergency and requires immediate evaluation and management to prevent permanent vision loss.

Question 6 of 9

A patient is brought to the emergency department experiencing a possible stroke. What initial diagnostic test for a stroke , usually performed in the emergency department would the nurse prepare the patient for?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the emergency department setting, the initial diagnostic test typically performed for a patient suspected of having a stroke is a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head. This imaging study is crucial in evaluating and diagnosing stroke because it can quickly identify whether the person is having a hemorrhagic stroke (bleeding in the brain) or an ischemic stroke (blood clot blocking a blood vessel). The results of the CT scan help guide immediate treatment decisions, such as administering clot-busting medications for ischemic strokes or preparing for surgical interventions for hemorrhagic strokes. Carotid ultrasound studies and transcranial Doppler flow studies may be performed after the initial CT scan to further assess the extent of damage and the underlying cause of the stroke. The 12-lead electrocardiogram is useful in assessing the heart's electrical activity but is not the primary test for diagnosing stroke.

Question 7 of 9

A patient became seriously ill after a nurse gave him the wrong medication. After his recovery , he filed a lawsuit. Who is MOST likely to be held liable?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In cases where a patient becomes seriously ill or is harmed due to receiving the wrong medication, both the nurse and the hospital are likely to be held liable. The nurse is responsible for administering the correct medication to the patient, and any error in this process can lead to harm. The hospital may also be held liable for the actions of its employees, including nurses, under the legal principle of vicarious liability. Additionally, the hospital has a duty to ensure that proper protocols are in place to prevent medication errors, and failure to do so can lead to liability. Therefore, in this scenario, both the nurse and the hospital are likely to share liability for the patient's harm.

Question 8 of 9

When the findings of the study can be applied to all patients with MI under stress patients in the whole Philippines, it satisfies which of the following criteria in research?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Generalizability refers to the extent to which research findings and conclusions can be applied beyond the specific conditions of the study to a larger population or different settings. In this case, if the findings of a study on patients with myocardial infarction (MI) under stress can be applied to all such patients in the whole Philippines, it indicates that the study results are generalizable beyond the specific sample studied. Therefore, the criteria satisfied in this context is generalizability.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with renal failure presents with confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath. Laboratory findings reveal severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.

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