Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, resulting in heel pain that is typically worse with the first steps in the morning?

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, resulting in heel pain that is typically worse with the first steps in the morning?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Plantar fasciitis is the correct answer. It is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, leading to heel pain, especially in the morning. The plantar fascia is a band of tissue that connects the heel bone to the toes. The pain is usually worse with the first steps after resting. Achilles tendinitis involves inflammation of the Achilles tendon, which connects the calf muscles to the heel bone, causing pain at the back of the heel and ankle. Morton's neuroma is a condition involving a thickening of tissue around a nerve in the ball of the foot, leading to sharp, burning pain in the toes. Stress fracture of the calcaneus refers to a small crack in the heel bone due to repetitive stress or overuse, resulting in heel pain that may worsen with activity, but not specifically with the first steps in the morning.

Question 2 of 9

A patient is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyponatremia. SSRI medications can lead to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), causing hyponatremia. This occurs due to increased levels of serotonin affecting the hypothalamus, leading to excessive ADH release. Hyponatremia can result in neurological symptoms and must be closely monitored. A: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with SSRIs. D: Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs; they may actually lower blood pressure.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a history of multiple myeloma demonstrates hypogammaglobulinemia. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgA. In multiple myeloma, there is a proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, leading to a decrease in normal antibody production. IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity. Therefore, a deficiency in IgA is common in patients with multiple myeloma. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and is typically less affected in multiple myeloma. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is less likely to be deficient in this case. IgE is primarily involved in allergic responses and is not typically affected in multiple myeloma.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT of collaboration in a health care settings?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because interprofessional collaboration and multidisciplinary collaboration are not interchangeable terms. Interprofessional collaboration involves professionals from different disciplines working together to provide comprehensive care, while multidisciplinary collaboration involves professionals from various disciplines working alongside each other but not necessarily working together in a coordinated manner. This distinction is crucial in healthcare settings to ensure effective teamwork and patient-centered care. A: Trust and respect are core values of a collaborative organization - This statement is correct because trust and respect are essential for effective collaboration in healthcare settings. B: A shared vision is essential for collaboration in any health care operations - This statement is correct as a shared vision helps align team members towards common goals. C: Successful conflict resolution can help collaborative teams overcome differences - This statement is correct as resolving conflicts constructively can strengthen team dynamics and improve collaboration.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of throat pain, odynophagia, and fever. Physical examination reveals tonsillar enlargement with yellow-white exudates and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS). GAS is the most likely organism responsible for this presentation, known as acute bacterial tonsillitis. GAS commonly causes symptoms such as throat pain, odynophagia, fever, tonsillar enlargement with exudates, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Streptococcal pharyngitis is a common bacterial infection of the throat caused by GAS. The other options are less likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae typically causes pneumonia and Haemophilus influenzae is associated with respiratory tract infections. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, which presents with different symptoms than those described in the question.

Question 6 of 9

A patient in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by worsening dyspnea and increased sputum production. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.

Question 7 of 9

To families and individual in the community, which is the MOST important goal of health education?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because health education aims to empower individuals and families to develop skills and literacy in health. This enables them to make informed decisions and take control of their health. By improving their health literacy, they can better understand health information and navigate the healthcare system effectively. This goal aligns with promoting health behavior change and long-term wellness. A: Studying life history is not a primary goal of health education and does not directly contribute to improving health outcomes. B: Identifying weaknesses may be a part of health assessment, but the main goal is to empower individuals with skills and knowledge to improve their health. C: While lifestyle changes may be necessary for better health, the goal of health education is to provide individuals with the tools to make these changes, not to impose drastic transformations.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, peripheral edema, and hypertension. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, metabolic acidosis, and hyperkalemia. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial management for the patient described is hemodialysis. Hemodialysis is essential for managing chronic kidney disease with severe symptoms and electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis. Hemodialysis helps to remove urea and creatinine from the blood, correct electrolyte abnormalities, and improve symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea, and peripheral edema. Initiation of ACE inhibitor therapy (Choice A) is contraindicated in severe kidney disease due to the risk of worsening renal function. Intravenous administration of calcium gluconate (Choice C) is used for acute hyperkalemia with cardiac toxicity, not for initial management. Sodium bicarbonate administration (Choice D) may help correct metabolic acidosis, but it does not address the underlying cause or the need for urgent renal replacement therapy.

Question 9 of 9

The physician inserted a chest tube drainage to Mr. Alda in order to help re-expand the lungs. Which of the following should you prepare FIRST as a nurse in case of emergency when the tube is accidentally disconnected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days