ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, resulting in heel pain that is typically worse with the first steps in the morning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Plantar fasciitis is the correct answer. It is characterized by inflammation of the plantar fascia, leading to heel pain, especially in the morning. The plantar fascia is a band of tissue that connects the heel bone to the toes. The pain is usually worse with the first steps after resting. Achilles tendinitis involves inflammation of the Achilles tendon, which connects the calf muscles to the heel bone, causing pain at the back of the heel and ankle. Morton's neuroma is a condition involving a thickening of tissue around a nerve in the ball of the foot, leading to sharp, burning pain in the toes. Stress fracture of the calcaneus refers to a small crack in the heel bone due to repetitive stress or overuse, resulting in heel pain that may worsen with activity, but not specifically with the first steps in the morning.
Question 2 of 9
Which is the simple meaning of standards of nursing care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: How the nurse will behave. Standards of nursing care refer to the expected behaviors and practices that nurses should adhere to in providing quality care to patients. This encompasses ethical principles, professional conduct, and best practices in nursing. It is essential for nurses to follow these standards to ensure patient safety and quality outcomes. Explanation: - A: What protects the nurse. This choice is incorrect because standards of nursing care primarily focus on patient care and outcomes, rather than protecting the nurse. - C: How much work is done. This choice is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the behaviors and practices expected of nurses in providing quality care. - D: Ask the local officials. This choice is unrelated to the concept of standards of nursing care and is not relevant to the question.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele? To ____________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for surgical repair of myelomeningocele is to correct the neurologic defect. This is because myelomeningocele is a type of neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its protective covering do not close properly. Surgical repair aims to close the opening in the spinal cord to prevent further damage, improve neurological function, and reduce the risk of complications such as paralysis and infection. The other choices are incorrect as they are not the primary goal of the surgery. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary reason. Seizure disorders (Choice C) and hydrocephalus (Choice D) may be associated complications but are not the main purpose of the surgical repair.
Question 4 of 9
A Patients to take regularly Lithium after discharged. The MOST important information to impart to the patient and his family is that the patient should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, to have a limited intake of sodium. Lithium can lead to increased sodium levels in the body, potentially causing toxicity. By limiting sodium intake, the patient can maintain a balance and prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect as tyramine content is not directly related to lithium intake. Choice B is incorrect as fluid intake does not have a significant impact on lithium levels. Choice D is incorrect because an adequate intake of sodium can lead to worsening lithium toxicity.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan reveals a mismatched defect. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. This is the most likely cause of the symptoms based on the presentation of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and a mismatched defect on the V/Q scan. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary artery. This can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. The V/Q scan showing a mismatched defect indicates a ventilation-perfusion mismatch, which is a classic finding in pulmonary embolism. Pericarditis (B), acute myocardial infarction (C), and aortic dissection (D) typically present with different sets of symptoms and do not match the V/Q scan findings in this case.
Question 7 of 9
In nursing, Nurse Trining explained that the MAIN goal of conducting research is to______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: establish a credit body of evidence to support and improve the delivery of care. Conducting research in nursing aims to generate a robust evidence base to inform and enhance the quality of care provided to patients. This evidence helps in identifying best practices, improving patient outcomes, and advancing the nursing profession as a whole. Choice A is incorrect because the main goal of research is not to solely justify the role of nurses, but rather to improve care delivery. Choice C is incorrect as the goal is not to justify an oversupply of nurses, but to address healthcare needs effectively. Choice D is incorrect because the focus of nursing research is on nursing-related issues, not non-nursing problems.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. On examination, there is nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meningitis. The patient's symptoms of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, nuchal rigidity, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs are classic signs of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord, leading to these specific neurological symptoms. Migraine headache (A) typically presents with a throbbing headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headache with autonomic symptoms like tearing or nasal congestion, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) presents with sudden severe headache often described as "the worst headache of my life," and may cause neck stiffness, but typically does not present with photophobia or positive meningeal signs like Kernig and Brudzinski signs.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is prescribed a statin medication for lipid-lowering therapy. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain or weakness. Statins can cause muscle-related side effects, including rhabdomyolysis, a severe condition that can lead to muscle pain and weakness. Monitoring for these symptoms is crucial to prevent serious complications. B: Dry cough is not a common side effect of statins. C: Hypertension is not directly associated with statin use. D: Hyperkalemia is not a typical adverse effect of statins.