ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Barbiturates are central nervous system depressants used to treat seizures, insomnia, and anxiety. However, they can worsen hypotension as they can cause vasodilation and decrease blood pressure. Choice B is correct because using barbiturates in hypotensive patients can lead to further lowering of blood pressure, potentially causing harm. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as barbiturates are commonly used to treat seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, respectively, due to their sedative and anticonvulsant properties.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is not related to drug toxicity of Atenolol?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing down the heart rate, so tachycardia is not related to its toxicity. A: CHF can be exacerbated by Atenolol due to its negative inotropic effects. C: AV block can occur as Atenolol can further slow down the heart's conduction system. D: Sedative appearance can be a side effect of Atenolol due to its action on the central nervous system. In summary, tachycardia is not related to Atenolol toxicity because it decreases heart rate.
Question 3 of 9
In which of the following cases is Lansoprazole not used?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat conditions related to excess stomach acid. Thalamus hypertrophy is not a condition affecting stomach acid production, making it unrelated to Lansoprazole use. A: Gastritis, B: Peptic Ulcers, and C: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome all involve excessive stomach acid secretion, hence Lansoprazole is used in these cases. Thalamus hypertrophy does not involve stomach acid issues, making it the correct answer.
Question 4 of 9
A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ACE inhibitor. Drugs ending in the suffix (-pril) typically refer to ACE inhibitors, which are commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme. ACE inhibitors do not belong to the categories mentioned in the other choices. Choice A (H) is vague and does not provide any relevant information. Choice C (Antifungal) is incorrect as drugs ending in (-pril) are not typically used to treat fungal infections. Choice D (Beta agonist) is also incorrect as drugs ending in (-pril) do not belong to the class of beta agonists, which are used to treat conditions like asthma and COPD.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following conditions is not treated with Methotrexate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rheumatic fever. Methotrexate is not typically used to treat rheumatic fever as it is an autoimmune inflammatory condition, not typically responsive to Methotrexate. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat sarcomas, leukemias, and ectopic pregnancies due to its ability to inhibit cell proliferation. Sarcomas and leukemias are types of cancers, while ectopic pregnancy is a condition where a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Quinidine. Cinchonism is a condition caused by the toxicity of Cinchona alkaloids, which are found in drugs like quinine and quinidine. Quinidine is specifically known to cause symptoms of cinchonism such as tinnitus, headache, blurred vision, and nausea. Valproic acid (choice A) is an anticonvulsant, not associated with cinchonism. Isoniazid (choice C) is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis and does not cause cinchonism. Ethosuximide (choice D) is an anticonvulsant used to treat absence seizures and is not linked to cinchonism.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sexual dysfunction. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that primarily causes vasodilation by relaxing blood vessels. Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect associated with Nifedipine use. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are potential side effects of Nifedipine due to its mechanism of action on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, D is the correct choice as it does not align with the expected side effects of Nifedipine.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management, not sedation. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain to reduce pain perception. Pulmonary edema can be managed with diuretics, cough suppression with antitussives, and sedation with sedatives/hypnotics. Therefore, sedation is not a condition typically treated with opioid analgesics.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flumazenil. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can reverse the effects of benzodiazepine toxicity by competitively inhibiting the binding of benzodiazepines to their receptors. It works by reversing the sedative and respiratory depressant effects of benzodiazepines. Methylene blue (B) is used to treat methemoglobinemia, not benzodiazepine toxicity. Deferoxamine (C) is used for iron toxicity. Alkalinizing urine (D) is used to enhance the excretion of weak acids in the urine, not for benzodiazepine toxicity.