ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find when performing admission assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When performing an admission assessment, the nurse should expect to find clinical manifestations that are indicative of a variety of conditions. Paresthesia (abnormal sensation like tingling, prickling, or numbness) and muscle weakness of the upper body are commonly associated with neurological conditions such as peripheral neuropathy or cervical radiculopathy. These symptoms suggest dysfunction in the nerves that supply the upper body muscles, leading to sensory changes and weakness. This finding would prompt further assessment and evaluation by healthcare providers to determine the underlying cause and appropriate interventions. Rapid progressive muscular atrophy, ascending paralysis with ataxia, and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically expected findings during an admission assessment and may signal more specific neurological conditions such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, or spinal cord injury, respectively.
Question 2 of 9
A patient asks the nurse about alternative treatment options for their condition. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's best response when a patient asks about alternative treatment options is to provide the patient with information about those options, including their benefits and risks. It is important for the nurse to support the patient in their exploration of different treatment approaches and empower them to make informed decisions about their care. Dismissing the question, ignoring it, or discouraging alternative treatments are not appropriate responses and may hinder the patient's ability to make choices that align with their values and preferences. Therefore, providing information and facilitating an open discussion about alternative treatments is the most appropriate approach for the patient's best interest.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with acute pain and swelling of the wrist joint. Physical examination reveals ulnar deviation of the fingers and swan-neck deformity of the digits. Which imaging modality is most appropriate for further evaluation of wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: X-ray is the most appropriate imaging modality for evaluating wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis. It can show joint space narrowing, erosions, soft tissue swelling, and periarticular osteopenia. X-rays are readily available, cost-effective, and provide valuable information about joint damage and disease progression in rheumatoid arthritis. In this case, X-ray would be able to confirm the presence of erosions, joint deformities, and assess the severity of the disease in the wrist joint. While MRI and ultrasound can also be helpful in evaluating rheumatoid arthritis, X-ray remains the initial imaging modality of choice due to its convenience and ability to assess bony changes. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is not indicated for evaluating wrist involvement in rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with suspected acute exacerbation of asthma presents with severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for assessing the severity of the patient's asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is presenting with severe symptoms of acute exacerbation of asthma, including severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. In such cases, the most appropriate intervention for assessing the severity of the asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions is a clinical assessment using standardized severity scores.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is preparing to assist with a cardiopulmonary exercise stress test for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure patient safety during the test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most critical action to prioritize for ensuring patient safety during a cardiopulmonary exercise stress test is to monitor the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm continuously during the test (Option B). This monitoring allows the healthcare team to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or signs of cardiac distress, enabling timely intervention if necessary. Continuous ECG monitoring is essential during exercise testing as it helps in assessing the heart's response to physical activity and identifying any potential cardiac abnormalities or complications that may arise during the test. By closely monitoring the ECG rhythm, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety and well-being throughout the procedure. Administering a beta-blocker medication before the test (Option A) may be indicated in some cases but is not as crucial as continuous ECG monitoring during the test. Encouraging the patient to consume a heavy meal before the test (Option C) is contraindicated as it can interfere with the accuracy of the results
Question 6 of 9
To remove the ingested poisonous substance, the physician ordered a gastric lavage. What is the role of the nurse immediately prior to the procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prior to a gastric lavage procedure, it is essential for the nurse to ensure the correct size of the nasogastric tube is selected. The appropriate size of the tube will allow for effective removal of the ingested poisonous substance during the procedure. Proper sizing also helps in preventing complications such as injury to the gastrointestinal tract or inadequate removal of the substance. This step is crucial for the safe and successful completion of gastric lavage. Reminding parents to be careful, obtaining informed consent immediately, or accusing them of negligence are not immediate responsibilities of the nurse in this context.
Question 7 of 9
The newly hired nurse asks for advice from the supervisor. supervisor notices that the newly hired nurse felt uneasy upon learning that the fetus is on breech presentation. Which of the following is the BEST RESPONSE by the supervisor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best response by the supervisor is to acknowledge the newly hired nurse's emotions by saying, "I understand how you feel. Tell me more." This response shows empathy and validates the nurse's feelings, creating a supportive environment for open communication. It allows the nurse to express their concerns and fears, leading to a constructive discussion and providing an opportunity for guidance and reassurance. This approach fosters a positive mentorship and learning experience for the newly hired nurse.
Question 8 of 9
The BEST rationale for the conduct of the program is which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The BEST rationale for the conduct of the program is to deliver safe and quality nursing care to patients on intravenous therapy (IV). This directly ties the purpose of the program to the real-world outcome it seeks to achieve - providing optimal care for patients requiring intravenous therapy. Ensuring safe practice in the hospital (Option A) is important but it is not specific to the focus of the IV therapy program. Improving nursing practice in general (Option B) is a noble goal but the program should have a specific and targeted objective. Providing knowledge and skills to all nursing staff in IV Therapy (Option C) is essential, but the primary aim should be centered on improving patient care outcomes. Therefore, delivering safe and quality nursing care to patients on IV therapy aligns most closely with the core purpose of the program and should be the primary rationale.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease is prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for ulcer healing. Which information is important for the nurse to include in patient education about PPI therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are commonly prescribed for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease to help heal ulcers and reduce acid production, it is important for the nurse to educate the patient about potential risks associated with PPI therapy. PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this risk and to take precautions, such as avoiding other medications that can increase bleeding risk and informing healthcare providers about any signs of bleeding, such as black stools or abdominal pain. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect allows for early recognition and prompt intervention if necessary.