Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following clinical manifestations is most indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: - ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress. - Tachypnea is a hallmark sign of ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygenation. - Hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen signifies the inability to improve oxygen levels despite intervention. - Choices A, B, and D do not align with typical manifestations of ARDS, as they do not directly reflect severe hypoxemia or respiratory distress.

Question 2 of 9

At which stage of Lewin ' s planned change indicates the nurse identifying, planning, and implementing appropriate strategies ensuring that driving forces exceed restraining forces?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: unfreezing. Unfreezing is the initial stage in Lewin's planned change model where individuals become open to change by recognizing the need for it. During this stage, the nurse identifies the need for change, plans strategies to implement it, and works on overcoming resistance by ensuring that the driving forces (reasons for change) outweigh the restraining forces (barriers to change). Refreezing (A) is the final stage where the changes are reinforced and integrated into the organization. Movement (B) is the stage where actual change occurs, and in activism (D) is not a recognized stage in Lewin's model.

Question 3 of 9

To promote drainage and reduce pressure from fluid, Nurse Selma nursing intervention is to have the child assume any of the following positions, EXCEPT _____.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lie on the affected area. This position would hinder drainage and increase pressure on the affected area. A: Tilt head to the side if sitting up, is correct as it promotes drainage. C: Putting pillows behind the head can also aid drainage. D: Lying on the non-affected ear can help reduce pressure on the affected side.

Question 4 of 9

The physician inserted a chest tube drainage to Mr. Alda in order to help re-expand the lungs. Which of the following should you prepare FIRST as a nurse in case of emergency when the tube is accidentally disconnected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.

Question 5 of 9

Nurse Mauve is now on ethical dilemma. This occurs when _______.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an ethical dilemma arises when there is a conflict between two or more ethical principles, leading to a difficult decision-making situation for Nurse Mauve. This involves weighing the benefits and consequences of each ethical principle to determine the best course of action. Choice A is incorrect as time pressure does not define an ethical dilemma. Choice B is incorrect because ethical dilemmas involve conflicting choices, not unclear ones. Choice C is incorrect as the conflict in an ethical dilemma is not necessarily with a superior but can be internal or with other stakeholders.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inductive process. Qualitative research typically involves an inductive approach, where researchers gather data, analyze patterns, and develop theories or hypotheses based on the observed data. This allows for exploration and discovery of new insights. A) Deductive process is not a characteristic of qualitative research, as deductive reasoning involves starting with a hypothesis and testing it with data. B) Fixed research design is not common in qualitative research, which often uses flexible and adaptive designs to accommodate emergent findings. C) Control over the context is not a key characteristic of qualitative research, as it often involves studying real-world settings with natural contexts rather than controlled environments. In summary, the inductive process is a key characteristic of qualitative research as it allows for exploration and theory development based on observed data, distinguishing it from deductive approaches, fixed designs, and controlled contexts.

Question 7 of 9

A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling following a vaginal delivery. On assessment, the nurse notes ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The client presenting with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling, along with ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum, could be indicative of complications such as a perineal hematoma. A perineal hematoma is a collection of blood in the perineal tissues and can be a serious postpartum complication requiring prompt medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to alert the healthcare provider so that appropriate assessment, management, and treatment can be initiated promptly. Applying ice packs or encouraging the client to sit on a donut cushion may not be sufficient in this situation, and administering additional analgesic medication should be done only after the healthcare provider has assessed and determined the cause of the symptoms.

Question 8 of 9

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences intractable pain despite receiving opioid medications. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's pain?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because referring the patient to a pain management specialist for evaluation is essential in this scenario. The specialist can conduct a comprehensive assessment to identify the underlying causes of the intractable pain and recommend a tailored pain management plan. This approach ensures a multidisciplinary approach to address the complex nature of the patient's pain. Choice A is incorrect because simply increasing the dosage of the current opioid medication may not effectively address the underlying cause of the pain and can lead to potential side effects or opioid tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as switching to a different opioid medication without a thorough evaluation may not guarantee better pain control and can increase the risk of adverse effects or inadequate pain relief. Choice C is incorrect as administering adjuvant analgesic medications without addressing the root cause of the pain may not provide adequate pain relief and does not address the need for a specialized pain management plan.

Question 9 of 9

Which diagnostic procedure is commonly used to establish the diagnosis of lung cancer which provides a detailed description of the tracheobronchial tree and allows for biopsies of suspicious areas?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bronchoscopy. This procedure involves inserting a thin, flexible tube with a camera through the mouth or nose to examine the tracheobronchial tree. It allows direct visualization of the airways, collection of tissue samples for biopsy, and detection of abnormalities like tumors. A: CT scan provides detailed images of the lungs but does not allow for direct tissue sampling. C: Sputum cytology involves examining sputum for cancer cells but may not provide accurate results. D: PET scan is used to detect metabolic activity in tissues, including tumors, but does not provide detailed visualization of the airways or allow for biopsies.

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