Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Muscular dystrophy is primarily caused by mutations in the gene that provides instructions for making the protein dystrophin. Dystrophin plays a crucial role in maintaining the structure of muscle fibers. Glycoprotein is a general term for proteins with sugar molecules attached, not specifically related to muscular dystrophy. Troponin is a protein involved in muscle contraction regulation, and actinomyosin is not a specific muscle protein but a complex formed during muscle contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is dystrophin.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a 45-year-old woman who is obese and has a menstrual pattern consisting of periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods. Obesity and prolonged exposure to estrogen unopposed by progesterone due to infrequent ovulation are significant risk factors for endometrial cancer. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the increased risk of endometrial cancer. Postmenopausal status alone (Choice A), overweight with hypertension (Choice C), and smoking (Choice D) are not the primary risk factors for endometrial cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer because it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by features such as angiogenesis (formation of new blood vessels), immune cell activation (especially T cells), and excessive keratinocyte proliferation. This results in the typical symptoms seen in psoriasis, such as red, scaly patches on the skin. Melanoma is a type of skin cancer arising from melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Atopic dermatitis is a different skin condition involving eczematous changes, not specifically associated with the described characteristics of psoriasis. Urticaria is a skin condition characterized by hives and does not involve the same pathophysiological processes as psoriasis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Herpes simplex I virus.' This disorder is known as Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), where a Staphylococcus aureus organism produces an exfoliative toxin leading to skin exfoliation and large blister formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Herpes simplex viruses (I and II) cause different types of skin lesions and do not lead to exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe soft tissue infection, while cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that does not typically involve exfoliation and blister formation like in SSSS.