Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true:

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mumps is a contagious disease transmitted through air droplets and direct contact. 2. The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals. 3. Choice B is incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable. 4. Choice C is correct as mumps is highly contagious. 5. Choice D is accurate as mumps is transmitted via air droplets and direct contact. Summary: The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals, making it untrue that only humans can be infected. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable, highly contagious, and transmitted through air droplets and direct contact.

Question 2 of 9

Which one of the following statements about Rickettsiae is true?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular bacteria, hence they do not form spores, capsules, or flagella. 2. They have a slim glycocalyx layer, aiding in attachment to host cells. 3. Bipolar fimbriae are structures that help in adhesion to host cells. Therefore, all statements (A, B, and C) are true for Rickettsiae, making option D the correct answer. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of Rickettsiae.

Question 3 of 9

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. This is supported by the characteristics of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria, as it is a common skin commensal that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (choice D) is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent.

Question 4 of 9

A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed-type hypersensitivity. The Mantoux test is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity. This reaction typically occurs 48-72 hours after exposure to an antigen, such as tuberculin in this case. The focal skin hardening and redness that appeared 60 hours after tuberculin introduction align with the timeline and characteristics of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Summary: - Choice A (Delayed-type hypersensitivity): Correct, as explained above. - Choice B (Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves immune complexes and typically presents with tissue damage and inflammation. - Choice C (Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves the activation of complement proteins leading to cell lysis. - Choice D (Immediate hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction, such as in allergies, occurs within minutes to hours of exposure to an antigen and involves IgE-mediated mast

Question 5 of 9

Which antibiotics against Parvovirus B19 can be found during the first 10-14 days of the infection:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Question 6 of 9

A man is ill with a protozoan disease characterized by cerebral affection and loss of sight. Blood analysis revealed halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends. This disease is caused by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasma. Toxoplasma gondii causes Toxoplasmosis, a protozoan disease that can affect the brain and lead to vision loss. The halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends described in the blood analysis are characteristic of Toxoplasma parasites. Toxoplasma infection commonly occurs through ingestion of contaminated food or water, or contact with infected cat feces. Leishmania causes Leishmaniasis, Lamblia causes Giardiasis, Amoeba causes Amebiasis, and Trichomonad causes Trichomoniasis, none of which match the symptoms and blood analysis findings described in the question.

Question 7 of 9

In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC) adheres to the intestinal wall using bundle-forming pili. 2. EPEC produces toxins that disrupt cell structure and function, leading to diarrhea. 3. Shigella spp. invade intestinal cells, Salmonella spp. invade and multiply within cells, and Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing profuse watery diarrhea. Summary: A, C, and D choices are incorrect because they do not specifically adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins like EPEC does.

Question 8 of 9

Infection caused by the genus Candida can be successfully treated with:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Nystatin) is the correct answer: 1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida infections. 2. Candida is a type of fungus, not a bacteria targeted by penicillins (choice A) or cephalosporins (choice B). 3. Nystatin works by disrupting the fungal cell membrane, leading to its death. 4. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as Nystatin is a suitable treatment option for Candida infections.

Question 9 of 9

Which bacteria are associated with the disease tuberculosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is specifically associated with causing tuberculosis. Mycobacterium leprae (choice A) is associated with leprosy, not tuberculosis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice C) is associated with pneumonia, not tuberculosis. Escherichia coli (choice D) is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is not associated with tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only bacterium directly linked to the disease, making it the correct choice.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days