Which of the following characteristics is common in both malignant and benign tumors?

Questions 43

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ATI Pathophysiology Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following characteristics is common in both malignant and benign tumors?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Uncontrolled cell growth. This characteristic is common to both malignant and benign tumors. Benign tumors are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rapid growth, metastasis, and invasion of surrounding tissue are characteristics typically associated with malignant tumors.

Question 2 of 9

A 37-year-old woman has a 10 pack-year smoking history and has been using oral contraceptives for the past 2 years. The nurse should plan health education interventions knowing that this patient faces an increased risk of

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: myocardial infarction. Women aged 35 and older who smoke, especially with a history of 10 pack-years like in this case, face an increased risk of cardiovascular disorders, including myocardial infarction, when using oral contraceptives. Choice A, osteoporosis, is incorrect because smoking and oral contraceptives do not significantly increase the risk of osteoporosis. Choice B, dementia, is not directly associated with smoking, oral contraceptives, or their combination. Choice D, deep vein thrombosis, is a risk associated with oral contraceptives, especially in combination with smoking, but the highest increased risk in this case is for myocardial infarction.

Question 3 of 9

When assessing a patient experiencing breakthrough bleeding while taking oral contraceptives, what should the nurse consider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient on oral contraceptives experiences breakthrough bleeding, it is crucial for the nurse to consider the patient's adherence to the medication schedule. Breakthrough bleeding is often a sign of missed doses or inconsistent use, which can decrease the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive. Considering the possibility of pregnancy (Choice A) is important but secondary to assessing adherence. The need for an increased dosage (Choice C) is not typically the first consideration for breakthrough bleeding. Evaluating the effectiveness of the current oral contraceptive (Choice D) is relevant but should come after assessing adherence to the medication schedule.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is planning care for a client with damage to the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. What should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the vestibular area affects balance and may cause nausea. Therefore, the nurse should include assistance with ambulation in the care plan to help the client maintain stability while walking. Regular hearing tests (choice B) are not directly related to damage in the vestibular area of the vestibulocochlear nerve. While nausea (choice C) may occur due to vestibular damage, monitoring for it alone is not as essential as providing assistance with ambulation. Vision assessments (choice D) are important for assessing visual function but are not the priority when dealing with vestibular issues.

Question 5 of 9

A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

Question 6 of 9

A patient is being treated with amphotericin B. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has understood the patient teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The medication may cause kidney damage.' Amphotericin B is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as kidney damage. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this possible adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amphotericin B is not typically associated with causing diabetes, liver necrosis, or pancreatitis. Therefore, these statements do not reflect an accurate understanding of the medication's side effects.

Question 7 of 9

A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.

Question 8 of 9

Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.

Question 9 of 9

A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with ALS is to provide nutritional support to prevent aspiration. ALS causes muscle weakness, including the muscles used for swallowing, increasing the risk of aspiration. Providing proper nutrition and support can help prevent this complication. Administering muscle relaxants (Choice A) may not be suitable for ALS as it can further weaken muscles. While assisting with ADLs (Choice B) and encouraging physical therapy (Choice D) are important aspects of care, the priority for a client with ALS is to prevent complications related to swallowing and nutrition.

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