ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following cellular receptors is responsible for recognizing pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and initiating innate immune responses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are a group of cellular receptors responsible for recognizing pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), which are molecular components commonly found on pathogens like bacteria and viruses. When TLRs recognize these PAMPs, they initiate signaling pathways that trigger the innate immune response, leading to inflammation, antimicrobial defense, and the activation of adaptive immunity. B cell receptors (BCRs) and T cell receptors (TCRs) are involved in adaptive immune responses and recognize specific antigens rather than PAMPs. Fc receptors primarily bind to the Fc portion of antibodies and are involved in antibody-mediated immune responses. Thus, TLRs specifically play a critical role in sensing and responding to pathogens through the recognition of PAMPs.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with chronic respiratory failure secondary to severe restrictive lung disease requires long-term oxygen therapy to maintain adequate oxygenation. Which of the following oxygen delivery devices is most appropriate for delivering continuous supplemental oxygen in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate oxygen delivery device for a patient with chronic respiratory failure secondary to severe restrictive lung disease requiring continuous supplemental oxygen is a non-rebreather mask. A non-rebreather mask is designed to deliver high-flow oxygen and is typically used for short-term medical treatment in emergency situations or for critically ill patients. It is ideal for providing the highest concentration of oxygen available for inhalation, making it suitable for patients with severe hypoxemia.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with a history of recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged bleeding time and normal platelet count, PT, and aPTT. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Von Willebrand disease is a hereditary bleeding disorder that results from a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF), a protein that plays a key role in platelet adhesion and the initiation of primary hemostasis. The clinical manifestations of von Willebrand disease include recurrent mucocutaneous bleeding, such as nosebleeds, easy bruising, and gum bleeding. Laboratory findings typically show a prolonged bleeding time due to impaired platelet function, while platelet count, PT (prothrombin time), and aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) are usually normal. This distinguishes von Willebrand disease from other bleeding disorders such as hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency), which would show abnormal PT and aPTT due to deficiencies in specific clotting factors. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, would be characterized by a low platelet count
Question 4 of 5
A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with easy bruising and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged PT and aPTT, and mixing studies show correction of coagulation times with normal plasma. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K is essential for the production of several clotting factors in the liver, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. In a patient with chronic liver disease, impaired liver function can lead to decreased synthesis of these clotting factors. As a result, there is an underlying deficiency of these clotting factors, leading to prolonged PT (prothrombin time) and aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). The mixing studies showing correction with normal plasma further support the diagnosis of a factor deficiency rather than an inhibitor, which helps in ruling out conditions like DIC or hemophilia.
Question 5 of 5
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in multiple joints. Laboratory tests reveal elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), positive rheumatoid factor (RF), and presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The combination of recurrent joint pain, swelling, and limited range of motion in multiple joints along with elevated ESR, positive RF, and presence of anti-CCP antibodies is classic for rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Elevated ESR indicates inflammation, positive rheumatoid factor (RF) is an autoantibody commonly found in the serum of patients with RA, and the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies further supports the diagnosis of RA. These laboratory findings along with the clinical presentation are highly suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), ankylosing spondylitis (AS), and psoriatic arthritis (PsA) can have overlapping symptoms with RA, but the specific combination of elevated ESR, positive RF, and anti-CCP antibodies points more towards RA in this scenario.