Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for presenting antigens to T cells during the immune response?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for presenting antigens to T cells during the immune response?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Macrophages. Macrophages are antigen-presenting cells that engulf pathogens and present their antigens to T cells, initiating an immune response. They express major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules necessary for T cell recognition. B cells also present antigens but primarily to B cells for antibody production. NK cells are involved in killing infected cells, not antigen presentation. Eosinophils are mainly involved in allergic responses and defense against parasites, not antigen presentation.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. On examination, there is nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meningitis. The patient's symptoms of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, nuchal rigidity, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs are classic signs of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord, leading to these specific neurological symptoms. Migraine headache (A) typically presents with a throbbing headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headache with autonomic symptoms like tearing or nasal congestion, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) presents with sudden severe headache often described as "the worst headache of my life," and may cause neck stiffness, but typically does not present with photophobia or positive meningeal signs like Kernig and Brudzinski signs.

Question 4 of 9

A postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section expresses discomfort when ambulating and performing activities of daily living. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to promote optimal recovery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging early ambulation and progressive activity as tolerated is the most appropriate nursing intervention to promote optimal recovery for a postpartum client who delivered via cesarean section. Early ambulation helps prevent complications such as blood clots, pneumonia, and constipation. It also promotes circulation and facilitates healing by reducing the risk of postoperative complications. Progressive activity helps the client regain strength, mobility, and independence, which are essential for a speedy recovery. Restoring normal movement will also help decrease discomfort and improve the client's overall well-being. In contrast, restricting movement may lead to complications and delayed recovery. Administering oral analgesics as needed is important for pain management, but promoting early ambulation is essential for optimal recovery. Heat packs should not be applied to the incision site as they can increase the risk of infection and interfere with proper wound healing.

Question 5 of 9

Mr. M is receiving hospice care for a terminal illness. He wants to make sure his daughter is allowed to make any decisions regarding his care should he become unable to do so. What document would permit his daughter to do this?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Durable power of attorney. This legal document allows Mr. M to appoint his daughter as his healthcare proxy, granting her the authority to make medical decisions on his behalf if he becomes incapacitated. A: Expressed contract involves clear terms agreed upon by both parties, not relevant here. B: Implied contract arises from actions rather than explicit agreement, not applicable in this situation. D: A living will outlines an individual's medical treatment preferences, but does not grant decision-making authority to another person.

Question 6 of 9

A 20-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain and missed menstrual periods for the past two months. She has a positive urine pregnancy test. On transvaginal ultrasound, an empty uterus is visualized, and there is fluid in the cul-de-sac. Which condition is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ectopic pregnancy. In this scenario, the combination of missed periods, positive pregnancy test, and empty uterus on ultrasound with fluid in the cul-de-sac is highly suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. The presence of fluid in the cul-de-sac indicates possible blood from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, causing the severe lower abdominal pain. Ovarian cyst rupture (A) typically presents with less severe pain. Septic abortion (C) would present with signs of infection and products of conception in the uterus. Ovarian torsion (D) would present with acute onset of unilateral lower abdominal pain and a palpable adnexal mass, not fluid in the cul-de-sac.

Question 7 of 9

A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.

Question 8 of 9

Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.

Question 9 of 9

Bel1le has a difficulty tolerating frustration The GOAL Of the nurse is to assist Belle to ________.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cope with anxiety. The nurse's goal is to address Belle's difficulty tolerating frustration, which likely leads to anxiety. By helping Belle develop coping strategies for managing her anxiety, the nurse can assist her in handling frustration more effectively. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing self-esteem, recognizing needs, and mobilizing resources may be important aspects of Belle's overall care but are not directly related to addressing her difficulty with frustration and anxiety. Focusing on coping with anxiety directly targets the root issue and is the most appropriate goal in this context.

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