Which of the following BP changes alerts the nurse to increasing ICP, and should be reported immediately?

Questions 67

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Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following BP changes alerts the nurse to increasing ICP, and should be reported immediately?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Widening pulse pressure. This indicates increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) as it signifies a significant difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. A widening pulse pressure is a key sign of impending herniation and requires immediate intervention. A: Gradual increase does not provide a clear indication of acute changes in ICP. C: Rapid drop followed by gradual increase may suggest other conditions and is not specific to increasing ICP. D: Rapid fluctuations may occur in various scenarios and do not specifically point to increasing ICP. In summary, a widening pulse pressure is the most critical and specific indicator of increasing ICP among the choices provided.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the ff. statements would the nurse understand is true when assessing normal auditory acuity using the Rinne test?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a normal Rinne test, air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in both ears. This is due to the fact that air conduction involves the transmission of sound waves through the external auditory canal, middle ear, and inner ear, which is more efficient than bone conduction where the sound waves are transmitted directly to the inner ear through the bones of the skull. Therefore, when the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone (bone conduction) and then moved next to the ear (air conduction), the sound should be heard longer through air conduction. Choice A is incorrect because normal auditory acuity does not necessarily mean equal perception in both ears. Choice C is incorrect as bone conduction should be heard shorter than air conduction in a normal Rinne test. Choice D is incorrect as the test does not determine which ear perceives sound better, but rather the difference in duration between air and bone conduction.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is explaining the action of insulin to a newly diagnosed diabetic client. During the teaching, the nurse reviews the process of insulin secretion in the body. The nurse is correct when stating that insulin is secreted from the:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Insulin is a hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreas. 2. Beta cells are responsible for monitoring blood glucose levels and secreting insulin in response to high glucose levels. 3. Insulin helps regulate blood glucose by facilitating glucose uptake into cells. 4. Adenohypophysis secretes other hormones, not insulin. 5. Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon, not insulin. 6. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid secrete calcitonin, not insulin. Summary: Choice C is correct because insulin is indeed secreted from the beta cells of the pancreas. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not secrete insulin or are related to other hormones.

Question 4 of 9

A patient has a bacterial infection in left lower leg. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse add to the patient’s care plan?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis is C: Impaired skin integrity. This choice is correct because it directly addresses the bacterial infection in the left lower leg by focusing on the skin's condition. The patient's skin integrity is compromised due to the infection, making this nursing diagnosis appropriate. Choice A (Infection) is too broad and does not specify the impact on the skin. Choice B (Risk for infection) is incorrect because the patient already has a bacterial infection, so the risk has already manifested. Choice D (Staphylococcal leg infection) is too specific and does not address the broader issue of skin integrity. Therefore, the best choice is C as it accurately reflects the patient's current condition and guides appropriate nursing interventions to address the impaired skin integrity caused by the bacterial infection.

Question 5 of 9

A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin is an alkylating agent that works by cross-linking DNA, preventing DNA synthesis and leading to cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cells like cancer cells. Choice B, inhibiting ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis. Choice C, being cell cycle-phase specific, is incorrect as mitomycin affects cells in all phases of the cell cycle. Choice D, inhibiting protein synthesis, is incorrect because mitomycin's primary mode of action is on DNA replication, not protein synthesis.

Question 6 of 9

At 1400, the nurse notices that the dressing is saturated and leaking. What is the nurse’s next action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a saturated and leaking dressing indicates a potential infection risk and compromised wound healing. The nurse should revise the plan of care and change the dressing immediately to prevent complications. Waiting until 1800 (choice A) could lead to further contamination and delay in treatment. Reassessing in 2 hours (choice C) might worsen the condition. Discontinuing the plan of care (choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the immediate issue.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is making initial rounds on patients. Which intervention for a patient with poor wound healing should the nurse perform first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Observe wound appearance and edges. This is the first intervention the nurse should perform because assessing the wound's appearance and edges provides crucial information about the healing process and any signs of infection. It helps in determining the next steps in the care plan. Reinforcing the dressing (A) and performing dressing changes (B) should come after assessing the wound. Documenting wound characteristics (D) is important but should also follow the initial assessment.

Question 8 of 9

When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restricting sodium. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels. Sodium can worsen calcium excretion, exacerbating the condition. Restricting sodium can help reduce calcium loss. A: Restricting fluids is not necessary unless the client has kidney issues. B: Forcing fluids may not be beneficial and can lead to fluid overload. D: Restricting potassium is not typically necessary unless the client has kidney issues.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse in the emergency department is completing an emergency assessment for a teenager just admitted from a car crash. Which of the following is objective data?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because "Unable to palpate femoral pulse in left leg" is an objective finding that can be measured or observed without interpretation or bias. It provides concrete, measurable information about the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are subjective data as they rely on the patient's feelings, emotions, and perceptions, which can vary and are open to interpretation. Objective data is crucial in making accurate assessments and decisions in healthcare.

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