ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following BP changes alerts the nurse to increasing ICP, and should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Widening pulse pressure. This indicates increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) as it signifies a significant difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. A widening pulse pressure is a key sign of impending herniation and requires immediate intervention. A: Gradual increase does not provide a clear indication of acute changes in ICP. C: Rapid drop followed by gradual increase may suggest other conditions and is not specific to increasing ICP. D: Rapid fluctuations may occur in various scenarios and do not specifically point to increasing ICP. In summary, a widening pulse pressure is the most critical and specific indicator of increasing ICP among the choices provided.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a new preoperative patient who is nil by mouth (NPO). The nurse notes that the patient has been on long-term oral steroid therapy. The nurse understands that which of the following is the reason that steroids cannot be abruptly stopped?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because abruptly stopping steroids can lead to adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the adrenal glands. This can result in a sudden drop in cortisol levels, which are essential for various physiological functions. Patients on long-term steroid therapy need a gradual taper to allow the adrenal glands to resume cortisol production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the physiological effects of stopping steroids abruptly.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is making initial rounds on patients. Which intervention for a patient with poor wound healing should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Observe wound appearance and edges. This is the first intervention the nurse should perform because assessing the wound's appearance and edges provides crucial information about the healing process and any signs of infection. It helps in determining the next steps in the care plan. Reinforcing the dressing (A) and performing dressing changes (B) should come after assessing the wound. Documenting wound characteristics (D) is important but should also follow the initial assessment.
Question 4 of 9
A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bodily fluids and excretions (urine, feces, vomitus) can become contaminated with radiation from the implant. Therefore, they should be considered highly radioactive and handled appropriately. Choice B is incorrect because the client may remain radioactive for a longer period than 10 days post-implant removal. Choice C is incorrect because soiled linens should be handled according to radiation safety protocols and removed promptly. Choice D is incorrect because bed rest is not necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider; the client should be encouraged to move around as tolerated to prevent complications.
Question 5 of 9
Charles is started on chemotherapy, which is aimed at restoring dopaminergic activities. An example of such a drug is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dopar. Dopar is a drug that increases dopamine levels by converting into dopamine in the brain. This directly restores dopaminergic activities. Artane (A) is an anticholinergic used for Parkinson's symptoms, Elavil (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Benadryl (C) is an antihistamine, none of which directly target dopaminergic activities like Dopar does.
Question 6 of 9
Pulmonary edema is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pulmonary edema is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation. 2. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure signifies heart failure, a common cause of pulmonary edema. 3. A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure. Therefore, all three alterations (A, B, D) are characteristic of pulmonary edema. Option C is correct. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all individually associated with pulmonary edema and collectively represent the condition.
Question 7 of 9
After being in remission from Hodgkin’s disease for 18 months, a client develops a fever of unknown origin. The physician orders a blind liver biopsy to rule out advancing Hodgkin’sdisease and infection. Twenty-four hours after the biopsy, the client has a fever, complains of severe abdominal pain, and seems increasingly confused. The nurse suspects that these finding result from:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perforation of the colon caused by the liver biopsy. The symptoms of fever, severe abdominal pain, and confusion are indicative of peritonitis, which can result from a bowel perforation during the liver biopsy procedure. Perforation of the colon can lead to leakage of bowel contents into the peritoneal cavity, causing inflammation, infection, and systemic symptoms. This is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Incorrect options: A: Bleeding in the liver caused by the liver biopsy would present with symptoms such as hypotension and signs of internal bleeding, not confusion and severe abdominal pain. C: An allergic reaction to contrast media would typically present with symptoms such as rash, itching, or respiratory distress, not fever, severe abdominal pain, and confusion. D: Normal post procedural pain would not cause confusion and a change in the level of consciousness, which indicates a more serious underlying issue like bowel perforation.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff. statements would the nurse understand is true when assessing normal auditory acuity using the Rinne test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a normal Rinne test, air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in both ears. This is due to the fact that air conduction involves the transmission of sound waves through the external auditory canal, middle ear, and inner ear, which is more efficient than bone conduction where the sound waves are transmitted directly to the inner ear through the bones of the skull. Therefore, when the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone (bone conduction) and then moved next to the ear (air conduction), the sound should be heard longer through air conduction. Choice A is incorrect because normal auditory acuity does not necessarily mean equal perception in both ears. Choice C is incorrect as bone conduction should be heard shorter than air conduction in a normal Rinne test. Choice D is incorrect as the test does not determine which ear perceives sound better, but rather the difference in duration between air and bone conduction.
Question 9 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.