ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following blood types would the nurse identify as the rarest?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Blood type A is considered the rarest because it is less common in the general population compared to other blood types. The rarity of blood type A is due to the combination of genetic factors that determine blood type. In contrast, blood types B and O are more common in the population, while blood type AB is considered the universal recipient type and is therefore not the rarest. Blood type A is less prevalent, making it the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
If Mr. Franco’s Right side is weak, What should be the most accurate analysis by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the right side weakness indicates a lesion in the left hemisphere of the brain. The brain's motor functions are contralaterally controlled, meaning the left hemisphere controls the right side of the body. Therefore, a right-sided weakness suggests a lesion in the left hemisphere. The other choices are incorrect because expressive aphasia is associated with left hemisphere lesions, judgment of distance and proprioception are more related to parietal lobe lesions, and orientation to time and space is not directly linked to right-sided weakness.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7am. At what time would the nurse expect the client to be at most risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. NPH insulin peaks in 4-12 hours, making 4:00 PM the highest risk time. 2. 10:00 AM is too soon for peak effect. 3. Noon is too early for peak effect. 4. 10:00 PM is too late for peak effect. In summary, B is correct as it aligns with NPH insulin peak time, while other options are too early or too late.
Question 4 of 9
20-year old Mr. Ang fell off from his horse, and sustained a lft hip fracture. Buck’s extension traction is applied. The following statements are true about Buck’s extension traction except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children due to their growing bones. Instead, it is used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - A: Correct - Buck's extension traction is indeed used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - B: Correct - Buck's extension traction is applied by an orthopedic surgeon under aseptic conditions using wires and pins. - C: Correct - The pulling force in Buck's extension traction is indeed transmitted to the musculoskeletal structures. Therefore, the incorrect option is D as Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children.
Question 5 of 9
A client with spinal cord injury at the level of T3 complains of a sudden severe headache and nasal congestion. The nurse observes that the client has a flushed skin with goose bumps. Which of the ff actions should the nurse first take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Call the physician. In this scenario, the sudden severe headache and nasal congestion along with flushed skin and goosebumps suggest autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in spinal cord injury at or above T6. The nurse should immediately call the physician to address this potentially life-threatening situation. Raising the client's head (A) may worsen the condition, placing the client on a firm mattress (B) is not a priority, and administering an analgesic (D) without addressing the underlying cause could lead to further complications. The priority is to identify and address the cause of autonomic dysreflexia promptly.
Question 6 of 9
A client is admitted for postoperative assessment and recovery after surgery for a kidney tumor. The nurse needs to assess for signs of urinary tract infection. Which of the ff measures can be used to help detect UTI?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor temperature every 4hrs. This is crucial in detecting signs of urinary tract infection as fever is a common symptom. Monitoring temperature regularly allows for early detection and appropriate intervention. A: Encouraging the client to breathe deeply and cough every 2hrs is a measure to prevent respiratory complications postoperatively, not related to UTI detection. C: Splinting the incision when repositioning the client is important for wound care, not for detecting UTI. D: Irrigating tubes as ordered is a specific intervention for tube care, not for monitoring UTI symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff is the diagnostic sign for pericarditis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pericardial friction rub. This is a key diagnostic sign of pericarditis due to the inflammation of the pericardial layers causing a rough, grating sound heard upon auscultation. Precordial pain (A) is a common symptom but not a specific diagnostic sign. Hypotension (C) and rapid/labored respirations (D) are not typically associated with pericarditis. Therefore, the presence of a pericardial friction rub is crucial in confirming the diagnosis of pericarditis.
Question 8 of 9
Following hypophysectomy, patients require extensive teaching regarding this major alteration in their lifestyle
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lifetime dependency on hormone replacement. After hypophysectomy, the pituitary gland is removed, leading to a deficiency in essential hormones. Patients will need lifelong hormone replacement therapy to maintain normal body functions. This is crucial for regulating metabolism, growth, reproduction, and stress response. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because abnormal distribution of body hair, increased fluid intake, and repeat surgical procedures are not typically associated with hypophysectomy. It is essential to focus on the long-term management of hormone replacement therapy to ensure the patient's overall health and well-being.
Question 9 of 9
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth Rationale: 1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions. 3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. 4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.