ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following blood types would the nurse identify as the rarest?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Blood type A is considered the rarest because it is less common in the general population compared to other blood types. The rarity of blood type A is due to the combination of genetic factors that determine blood type. In contrast, blood types B and O are more common in the population, while blood type AB is considered the universal recipient type and is therefore not the rarest. Blood type A is less prevalent, making it the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
Why does emotional counselling or helping the client perform common daily activities become important nursing care interventions in clients with Parkinson’s or Huntington’s diseases, or even epilepsy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients with Parkinson's, Huntington's diseases, or epilepsy often experience emotional challenges such as depression and anxiety due to the impact of their conditions on their daily lives. Emotional counseling helps address these issues. Additionally, these clients may struggle with basic self-care activities due to motor and cognitive deficits, making it crucial for nurses to assist them in performing daily tasks. Choice B is incorrect as clients with these conditions may experience paralysis or motor impairments, but it is not a universal symptom. Choice C is incorrect because the question does not mention bone issues in Parkinson's, Huntington's diseases, or epilepsy. Choice D is incorrect as aggression and violence are not common symptoms in clients with these neurologic deficits.
Question 3 of 9
A client diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is stabilized and prepared for discharge. When preparing the client for discharge and home management, which of the following statements indicates that the client understands her condition and how to control it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates an understanding of the key factors in managing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), which include avoiding dehydration and being aware of changes in urination, thirst, and hunger. This statement shows awareness of the importance of maintaining hydration and recognizing early signs of worsening symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as consuming sugary soda can exacerbate the condition by further increasing blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect because while monitoring blood glucose levels is important, it is not the primary method of preventing HHNS. Choice D is incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate snacks can contribute to elevated blood glucose levels, which is counterproductive in managing HHNS.
Question 4 of 9
For a patient receiving furosemide, the nurse evaluates the medication as being effective if which of the following effects occurs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output increased. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, thus helping to reduce fluid volume in the body. This effect is crucial in managing conditions like heart failure and edema. Increased urine output indicates that the medication is working as intended. Choice B: Heart rate increased is incorrect as furosemide does not directly affect heart rate. Choice C: Serum potassium decreased is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, but this is not the primary indicator of its effectiveness. Choice D: Pulse pressure increased is incorrect as furosemide does not typically impact pulse pressure.
Question 5 of 9
When monitoring for hypernatremia, the nurse should assess the client for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Confusion. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by high sodium levels in the blood. Confusion is a common symptom as high sodium levels can affect brain function. Dry skin (A) is more indicative of dehydration, tachycardia (B) is a symptom of various conditions, and pale coloring (D) is not specific to hypernatremia. Confusion is a key indicator that the nurse should assess for when monitoring for hypernatremia.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An adrenal adenoma. Adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn's syndrome. Adrenal adenomas are benign tumors that cause overproduction of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion. This results in hypertension and hypokalemia. Excessive sodium intake (A) and deficient potassium intake (B) are not direct causes of hyperaldosteronism. A pituitary adenoma (C) is associated with other hormone imbalances, such as Cushing's syndrome or acromegaly, but not hyperaldosteronism.
Question 7 of 9
A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.
Question 8 of 9
When administering a blood transfusion to a client with multiple traumatic injuries, the nurse monitors closely for evidence of a transfusion reaction. Shortly after the transfusion begins, the client complains of chest pain, nausea and itching. When urticarial, tachycardia, and hypotension develop, the nurse stops the transfusion and notifies the physician. The nurse suspects which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I (immediate, anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reaction. In this scenario, the client experiences symptoms shortly after the transfusion starts, such as chest pain, nausea, itching, urticaria, tachycardia, and hypotension, which are indicative of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction. Type I reactions involve the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells and basophils, leading to the symptoms described. The nurse's prompt action of stopping the transfusion and notifying the physician aligns with managing this type of reaction. Incorrect choices: B: Type II (cytolytic, cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reaction - This type of reaction involves antibodies targeting specific cells, leading to their destruction. The symptoms described in the scenario are not consistent with this type of reaction. C: Type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity reaction - This type of reaction involves the formation of immune complexes that deposit in tissues, causing
Question 9 of 9
Mrs. Zeno asks the nurse why the disease has occurred. The nurse bases the reply on the knowledge that there is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A decreased number of functioning acetyl-choline receptor sites. This is because in diseases like myasthenia gravis, there is an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptor sites, leading to decreased functionality. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a genetic defect in acetylcholine production, which is not typically the cause of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a reduced amount of acetylcholine, which is not the primary issue in myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions inhibition of the enzyme Ache, which is not the main mechanism in this disease.