ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following blood types would the nurse identify as the rarest?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (AB). AB blood type is the rarest because it is a result of inheriting both A and B alleles, making it less common in the population. AB individuals can only receive blood from other AB individuals due to their unique antigens. Blood types A, B, and O are more common in the population, with O being the most common as it is the universal donor. Blood type A and B are more common than AB since they only require one allele for their respective antigens. Thus, the rarity of AB blood type is due to the inheritance of both A and B alleles, making it the least common among the choices provided.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff. conditions places a patient at risk for respiratory complications following his splenectomy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: An incision near the diaphragm. Following a splenectomy, an incision near the diaphragm can lead to respiratory complications due to potential irritation or injury to the diaphragm. This can result in impaired breathing and increased risk of respiratory issues such as pneumonia. A: A low platelet count is not directly related to respiratory complications following a splenectomy. B: Early ambulation is generally encouraged to prevent complications such as blood clots but does not specifically impact respiratory complications. D: Early discharge may not directly lead to respiratory complications, as long as the patient is adequately monitored postoperatively.
Question 3 of 9
Bacterial meningitis alters intracranial physiology, causing:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bacterial meningitis alters intracranial physiology by causing cerebral edema, raised intracranial pressure, and increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier. Cerebral edema is the accumulation of fluid in the brain tissue, leading to increased pressure. Raised intracranial pressure occurs due to the inflammation and swelling caused by the infection. Increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier allows substances to pass through that would normally be blocked, contributing to the inflammatory response. Therefore, all of these changes are interconnected and commonly observed in bacterial meningitis cases. Choices A, B, and C individually describe specific alterations seen in bacterial meningitis but do not encompass the full spectrum of changes that occur, making them incorrect options.
Question 4 of 9
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. This is because regular screening with both tests can help detect prostate cancer early. The digital rectal exam allows the doctor to feel for any abnormalities in the prostate gland, while the PSA test measures the levels of a specific protein produced by the prostate gland. If there are any concerning findings, further diagnostic tests can be done to confirm prostate cancer. Choice B is incorrect because transrectal ultrasound is not a recommended screening test for prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as testicular self-examinations are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following terms would indicate to the nurse that a substance is toxic to the ear?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ototoxic. Ototoxic refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, potentially causing hearing loss or damage. The prefix "oto-" specifically relates to the ear. Otoplasty (A) is a surgical procedure to reshape the ear, not related to toxicity. Otalgia (C) refers to ear pain, not toxicity. Tinnitus (D) is a symptom of ringing in the ears, not directly related to toxicity. Therefore, the term "ototoxic" is the best indicator of a substance being toxic to the ear due to its specific reference to ear toxicity.
Question 6 of 9
A goal for a patient with diabetes is to demonstrate effective coping skills. Which patient behavior will indicate to the nurse achievement of this outcome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because stating feeling better after talking with family and friends demonstrates the use of healthy coping skills. This behavior indicates the patient is seeking and utilizing social support, which is crucial for managing stress and emotions effectively in diabetes management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate foods when stressed can lead to poor blood sugar control, disliking support group meetings indicates avoidance of beneficial support resources, and spending most of the day in bed can contribute to physical and emotional deterioration, rather than effective coping.
Question 7 of 9
If a client’s parathyroid glands were accidentally removed during a procedure, which condition should the nurse prepare for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the body. Without them, calcium levels will drop, leading to hypocalcemia. A: Hypomagnesemia is incorrect because magnesium levels are not directly regulated by the parathyroid glands. B: Hyperkalemia and C: Hypernatremia are incorrect as they are not typically associated with parathyroid gland removal. In summary, the removal of parathyroid glands would result in hypocalcemia due to the disruption of calcium regulation in the body.
Question 8 of 9
Nurse Karen is caring for a client with chronic renal failure. Which is a correct intervention for hyperkalemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hyperkalemia presents with symptoms such as muscle weakness, diarrhea, and ECG changes. Muscle weakness is a common sign due to potassium's effect on neuromuscular function. Diarrhea can lead to potassium loss. ECG changes, such as peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes, indicate cardiac involvement. Assessing for these symptoms helps monitor the severity of hyperkalemia and guide treatment. Other choices are incorrect because assessing for fever and chest pain (choice A) are not specific to hyperkalemia. Encouraging fluid restriction (choice C) may not directly address hyperkalemia. Preparing for a cardiac ultrasound (choice D) is not an immediate intervention for hyperkalemia.
Question 9 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. First, the nurse needs to assess the severity of the latex allergy to determine the appropriate interventions. Understanding the type of reaction can help guide treatment and prevent future exposure. Isolating the patient (choice A) is not necessary unless there is a severe reaction. Terminating the interview (choice C) prematurely is not appropriate as crucial information may be missed. Documenting the allergy (choice D) is important but not as urgent as assessing the reaction type.