ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a blood transfusion, it is crucial to perform blood typing and cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. This process helps prevent adverse reactions such as transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Prothrombin and coagulation time, bleeding and clotting time, as well as CBC and electrolyte levels are important tests in other clinical contexts, but for blood transfusions, blood typing and cross-matching are essential to ensure patient safety.
Question 2 of 9
What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following parameters should be checked when assessing respirations?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When assessing respirations, it is essential to evaluate the rate at which breaths are taken, the rhythm of breathing patterns, and the symmetry of chest expansion. Each of these parameters provides valuable information about a person's respiratory status. Therefore, it is important to assess all of the listed parameters to have a comprehensive understanding of the individual's respiratory function.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following interventions promotes patient safety?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All the listed interventions are essential for promoting patient safety. Assessing the patient's ability to ambulate and transfer helps prevent falls, demonstrating the signal system ensures effective communication in emergencies, and checking the patient's identification band aids in accurate identification and treatment. By combining these interventions, healthcare providers can enhance patient safety and quality of care.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following principles of primary nursing has proven the most satisfying to the patient and nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary nursing care units have been proven to be highly satisfying for both patients and nurses. This model promotes a consistent and continuous relationship between a patient and a primary nurse, leading to improved communication, personalized care, and overall satisfaction for both parties involved.
Question 7 of 9
When is the most appropriate time for obtaining a sputum specimen for culture?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before surgery. His oral temperature at 8 a.m. is 99.8°F (37.7°C). This temperature reading probably indicates:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient being kept off food and fluids before surgery can lead to dehydration. Dehydration can cause a slight increase in body temperature, which could explain the elevated oral temperature reading of 99.8°F (37.7°C) in this scenario. Infections are more likely to cause higher fevers, hypothermia would present with a lower temperature, and anxiety typically does not directly affect body temperature in this manner.
Question 9 of 9
To assess the kidney function of a patient with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures the hourly urine output. When should she notify the physician?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Notifying the physician is necessary when the urine output is less than 30 ml/hour as it indicates impaired kidney function. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring kidney function, and a urine output less than 30 ml/hour could suggest potential renal issues that require medical attention.