ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following best describes the test to assess the function of cranial nerve (CN) X?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cranial nerve X, also known as the vagus nerve, controls the movement of the soft palate and uvula. Asking the patient to say "ahhh" assesses the function of CN X as the soft palate and uvula should elevate symmetrically. A: Observing the patient's ability to articulate specific words does not specifically test CN X function. B: Assessing movement of the hard palate and uvula with the gag reflex primarily tests CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). C: Having the patient stick out the tongue and observing for tremors or pulling to one side primarily tests CN XII (hypoglossal nerve).
Question 2 of 9
Jaundice is manifested by a yellow skin colour, indicating rising levels of bilirubin in the blood. Which of the following findings is indicative of true jaundice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Jaundice is characterized by a yellow skin color due to elevated bilirubin levels. Step 2: Yellow color extending up to the iris indicates systemic jaundice, involving the whole body. Step 3: Yellow patches throughout the sclera (Choice A) may not indicate systemic jaundice. Step 4: Skin appearing yellow under low light (Choice C) may not be specific to jaundice. Step 5: Yellow deposits on palms and soles (Choice D) are not typical signs of jaundice. Therefore, Choice B is correct as it reflects systemic jaundice, while the other choices do not fully align with the manifestation of true jaundice.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse,"What does the middle ear do?" The nurse says that the function of the middle ear is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The middle ear conducts sound vibrations from the outer ear to the inner ear via the ossicles. 2. This transmission is essential for the inner ear to convert the vibrations into electrical signals for the brain to interpret as sound. 3. Maintaining balance (A) is the function of the inner ear's vestibular system. 4. Interpreting sounds (B) is done by the brain, not the middle ear. 5. Increasing amplitude (D) would distort sound perception, not enable inner ear function.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is preparing to assess the visual acuity of a 16-year-old patient. How would the nurse proceed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the nurse should use the Snellen chart positioned 6.1 m (20 ft) away to assess visual acuity. This is the standard method for testing distance vision. The nurse should ask the patient to read the letters on the chart from the top row down, covering one eye at a time if necessary. This method provides an accurate measurement of visual acuity at a distance. A: Performing the confrontation test assesses visual fields, not visual acuity. B: Using a Jaeger card is for near vision testing, not distance visual acuity. D: Assessing the ability to read newsprint at a close distance does not provide an accurate measurement of visual acuity at a distance.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is a risk factor for ear infections in young children?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Second-hand cigarette smoke. Exposure to second-hand smoke can irritate and inflame the lining of the Eustachian tube, making young children more susceptible to ear infections. This is supported by research showing a clear link between exposure to cigarette smoke and increased rates of ear infections in children. Family history (A) may contribute to genetic predisposition but is not a direct risk factor. Air conditioning (B) does not directly cause ear infections. Excessive cerumen (C) can lead to blockages but is not a primary risk factor for infections.
Question 6 of 9
An ophthalmic examination reveals papilledema. The nurse is aware that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure in the brain. It is a sign of serious conditions like brain tumors, head trauma, or hydrocephalus. The other choices are incorrect because retinal detachment presents with visual disturbances and floaters (A), diabetic retinopathy with retinal damage due to diabetes (B), and acute-angle glaucoma with sudden eye pain and blurred vision (C). Papilledema specifically indicates increased intracranial pressure, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is the best way to palpate the lymph nodes in the neck?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using the index and middle fingers to palpate with gentle pressure in a rotating pattern allows for a thorough examination of the lymph nodes without causing discomfort or injury. This method helps to assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the nodes accurately. It also enables the examiner to detect any abnormalities such as enlargement or tenderness. A is incorrect as using strong pressure can be painful and lead to inaccurate assessment. B is incorrect as strong pressure can be harmful and may not provide the necessary sensitivity to detect abnormalities. C is incorrect as pinching each node can be uncomfortable and may not allow for a systematic examination of the lymph nodes.
Question 8 of 9
A mother is concerned that her 18-month-old already has 12 teeth. She is wondering if this is normal for a child of this age. The nurse's best response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. At 18 months, it is expected for a child to have erupted around 16 deciduous teeth. The rationale for this answer is based on dental development milestones. By age 3, most children should have their full set of 20 primary teeth. Therefore, the nurse should inform the mother that it is normal for an 18-month-old to have around 16 teeth. Choice A is incorrect as comparing the mother's teeth at that age is irrelevant to the child's dental development. Choice B is incorrect because all 20 deciduous teeth should be present by age 3, not 4. Choice C is incorrect as having 12 teeth at 18 months is below the expected number of erupted teeth for that age.
Question 9 of 9
When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the nurse notes that the light is reflected at the 2 o'clock position in each eye. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: document this as an asymmetrical light reflex. This finding indicates an asymmetry in the corneal light reflex, suggesting a possible deviation in eye alignment or muscle weakness. It is essential to document this observation for further evaluation and monitoring. Choice A is incorrect as asymmetry in the light reflex is not a normal finding. Referring for further evaluation (Choice B) would be appropriate if the asymmetry persists or is associated with other concerning symptoms. Performing the confrontation test (Choice D) is not necessary for this specific assessment and finding.