ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a functional assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a functional assessment specifically evaluates an older adult's ability to manage day-to-day activities, such as personal care, meal preparation, and mobility. This assessment helps identify any difficulties the individual may have in performing these essential tasks, which can then inform appropriate interventions or support services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the primary focus of a functional assessment, which is to evaluate an individual's functional abilities and independence in daily living tasks, particularly in the context of aging or disability.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following a lung resection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and dyspnea. After a lung resection, complications like atelectasis or pneumonia can occur, leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring respiratory rate and dyspnea helps detect these issues early. Incorrect choices: B: Constipation and abdominal distension are not directly related to post-operative lung resection complications. C: Nausea and vomiting are more likely related to gastrointestinal issues rather than lung resection. D: Muscle weakness and fatigue are not specific signs of complications following a lung resection.
Question 3 of 9
What should be the first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke is to perform a CT scan (Choice B). This is because a CT scan can quickly identify the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) and guide treatment decisions. Monitoring neurological status (Choice A) can be important but does not provide a definitive diagnosis. Administering fibrinolytics (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the type of stroke to avoid complications. Performing an MRI (Choice D) is more time-consuming and may not be feasible in the acute setting where quick intervention is crucial. Therefore, a CT scan is the most appropriate initial intervention for a suspected stroke.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate teaching for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because increasing physical activity and reducing stress are important lifestyle changes for managing chronic hypertension. Exercise helps lower blood pressure and stress reduction techniques can help control hypertension. Option A is incorrect as reducing sodium intake, not increasing it, is recommended. Option C is incorrect as medications for hypertension should be taken as prescribed, not only when blood pressure increases. Option D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure should be done regularly, but not necessarily every week.
Question 5 of 9
A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he "feels hot." This type of data would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: subjective. Subjective data refers to information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, and experiences. In this case, the patient's report of feeling nervous, nauseated, and hot is subjective because it reflects their personal sensations and cannot be measured or observed directly by the nurse. Objective data (choice A) is measurable and observable, such as vital signs or physical examination findings. Reflective (choice B) and introspective (choice D) do not accurately describe the type of data provided by the patient in this scenario. The patient's symptoms are subjective because they are based on the patient's own feelings and experiences, making choice C the most appropriate answer.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being assessed. The nurse would expect to find which of the following symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema and proteinuria. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products effectively, leading to fluid retention (edema) and protein leaking into the urine (proteinuria). Edema occurs due to fluid buildup from decreased kidney function. Proteinuria is a result of damaged glomeruli in the kidneys, allowing proteins to leak into the urine. Weight loss and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are not typical symptoms of CKD. Hypertension and tachycardia can occur in CKD due to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Hypothermia and bradycardia are not common symptoms of CKD and would be more indicative of other conditions.
Question 7 of 9
A patient keeps saying, "I feel hot. Hot, cot, rot, tot, got. I'm a spot.' This is an illustration of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clanging. Clanging refers to the phenomenon where words are chosen based on sound rather than meaning. In this case, the patient's speech demonstrates a pattern of words that rhyme or have similar sounds, despite lacking coherence or logical connection. This behavior is commonly seen in individuals with conditions like schizophrenia. Incorrect choices: A: Blocking - Blocking refers to sudden interruption or cessation of speech. This does not apply to the scenario described. C: Echolalia - Echolalia involves repetition of words or phrases spoken by others, not self-generated word patterns like in the scenario. D: Neologism - Neologism refers to the creation of new words or phrases with unique meanings, which is not reflected in the patient's speech pattern.
Question 8 of 9
Which is an inappropriate item in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transfuse neutrophils. Neutrophil transfusion is not a standard treatment for neutropenia as neutrophils do not survive well outside the body. For the other choices: B: Excluding raw vegetables is correct to prevent infection. C: Avoiding rectal suppositories is correct to prevent mucosal injury. D: Prohibiting vases of fresh flowers is correct to prevent exposure to fungal spores. So, transfusing neutrophils is inappropriate as it is not a standard treatment for neutropenia.
Question 9 of 9
Which food helps lower cholesterol?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lower cholesterol. Foods that help lower cholesterol typically include sources of soluble fiber, plant sterols, and healthy fats like omega-3 fatty acids. These components can lower LDL (bad) cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of heart disease. Fiber-rich foods (choice A) are beneficial for lowering cholesterol due to their ability to bind to cholesterol and remove it from the body. Reduce diabetic ketoacidosis (choice B) is unrelated to lowering cholesterol and is a serious complication of diabetes. Reduce the need for folate (choice D) is not directly related to cholesterol levels. Thus, the correct choice is C as it directly addresses the question about lowering cholesterol.