Which of the following best describes the purpose of a functional assessment?

Questions 84

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

health assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a functional assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a functional assessment specifically evaluates an older adult's ability to manage day-to-day activities, such as personal care, meal preparation, and mobility. This assessment helps identify any difficulties the individual may have in performing these essential tasks, which can then inform appropriate interventions or support services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the primary focus of a functional assessment, which is to evaluate an individual's functional abilities and independence in daily living tasks, particularly in the context of aging or disability.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of stroke. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. Monitoring for DVT is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications like pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism (A) is a potential complication of DVT but not the most direct concern. Hypertension (C) is a common condition but not directly linked to a history of stroke. Hyperglycemia (D) is more commonly associated with diabetes rather than stroke history. Monitoring for DVT in stroke patients is essential for early detection and intervention.

Question 3 of 9

What is the most effective treatment for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia, and oxygen therapy is essential to improve oxygenation. Administering corticosteroids (B) is not recommended as they do not improve outcomes in ARDS. Monitoring serum glucose (C) is unrelated to the treatment of ARDS. Administering pain relief (D) is important for patient comfort but does not address the underlying hypoxemia in ARDS. Oxygen therapy is the primary treatment to support respiratory function and improve oxygen delivery in ARDS.

Question 4 of 9

Which nursing intervention should be prioritized for a client with congestive heart failure (CHF)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Promoting activity is the most prioritized nursing intervention for a client with CHF. Activity helps improve cardiac function, decreases fluid accumulation, and enhances overall cardiovascular health. It also prevents complications like muscle weakness and deconditioning. It is crucial in managing CHF symptoms and improving the client's quality of life. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Administering diuretics helps in reducing fluid overload but does not address the underlying issue of improving cardiac function through physical activity. B: Limiting fluid intake is important, but promoting activity takes precedence as it directly impacts cardiac function and fluid accumulation. D: Maintaining fluid balance is necessary but is a broad concept that includes various interventions, with promoting activity being more focused and critical in CHF management.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Chemotherapy can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decrease in neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), causing neutropenia. This increases the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in patients receiving chemotherapy to prevent serious complications. Anemia (A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to infection risk. Hyperkalemia (B) and hypocalcemia (D) are less likely to be immediate complications of chemotherapy compared to neutropenia.

Question 6 of 9

A 47-year-old woman who is a recent immigrant to Canada is being seen at the clinic today for her uncontrolled diabetes. The nurse knows that the patient lives with her husband and a large extended family. The nurse concludes that part of the patient's inability to maintain and comply with her diet and diabetic regime is the foods that this patient eats. This conclusion is an example of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: culturalism. The nurse's conclusion that the patient's inability to maintain her diet and diabetic regime is due to the foods she eats reflects culturalism. Culturalism refers to the belief that a person's behaviors and beliefs are solely determined by their culture. In this case, the nurse is attributing the patient's struggles solely to her cultural background without considering other factors. A: Cultural sensitivity is about being aware and respectful of different cultures, but it does not involve making assumptions based on culture alone. B: Cultural safety is about creating a safe and respectful environment for individuals from different cultures, but it does not involve making assumptions about behavior solely based on culture. C: Cultural perspective involves understanding different cultural viewpoints, but it does not involve making assumptions about behavior solely based on culture. In summary, the nurse's conclusion is an example of culturalism as it oversimplifies the patient's situation by attributing her struggles solely to her cultural background.

Question 7 of 9

What should be the first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke is to perform a CT scan (Choice B). This is because a CT scan can quickly identify the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) and guide treatment decisions. Monitoring neurological status (Choice A) can be important but does not provide a definitive diagnosis. Administering fibrinolytics (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the type of stroke to avoid complications. Performing an MRI (Choice D) is more time-consuming and may not be feasible in the acute setting where quick intervention is crucial. Therefore, a CT scan is the most appropriate initial intervention for a suspected stroke.

Question 8 of 9

Which technique should the nurse use to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination is palpation. Crepitus is a crackling or grating sensation that is felt when there is air trapped in the subcutaneous tissue. Palpation involves using the hands to feel for abnormalities such as crepitus. Percussion involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help assess underlying structures, not to determine the presence of crepitus. Auscultation is listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope, which is not relevant for detecting crepitus.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is teaching a patient with asthma about managing asthma attacks. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates proper understanding?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: Using the inhaler when feeling an asthma attack coming on allows for prompt relief by opening airways. Waiting for symptoms to worsen (B) can lead to a severe attack. Using the inhaler only when short of breath (C) may delay treatment. Skipping the inhaler when feeling fine (D) can be dangerous if an attack occurs suddenly. Answer A ensures timely intervention for effective asthma management.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days