ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analog that works by binding to specific receptors and activating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased levels of cAMP. This results in smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect as alprostadil does not directly affect cGMP levels or PDE-5 activity. Choice D is also incorrect as alprostadil does not block nitric oxide, but rather enhances its effects through the cAMP pathway.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has low cardiac output due to poor cardiac function. He is eclematous. Which one of the following should be avoided because it can aggravate cardiac dysfunctions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can worsen heart failure by increasing plasma volume and exacerbating the workload on the heart. Furosemide (A) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are loop and thiazide diuretics, respectively, commonly used to manage fluid overload in heart failure patients. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can be beneficial in heart failure by counteracting potassium loss caused by other diuretics.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following diuretics than can cause gynecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbances as adverse reactions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist. 2. Aldosterone antagonism can lead to anti-androgenic effects, causing gynecomastia and hirsutism in males and menstrual disturbances in females. 3. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic known for electrolyte imbalances, not these specific side effects. 4. Bumetanide (B) is a loop diuretic that primarily affects electrolytes, not causing hormonal side effects. 5. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, usually associated with metabolic acidosis, not hormonal disturbances. Summary: Spironolactone (D) is the correct answer due to its aldosterone antagonist properties causing hormonal side effects. The other choices do not have the same mechanism of action and are not associated with gynecomastia,
Question 4 of 5
How is an intravenous pyelogram performed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is performed by injecting a contrast dye into the vein. This dye travels through the bloodstream, highlighting the kidneys, ureters, and bladder on X-ray images. Palpating the suprapubic area (A) involves feeling for the bladder, but it is not part of an IVP procedure. Percussing the area over the bladder (B) involves tapping to assess for fluid or air, which is not relevant to an IVP. Using a stethoscope to listen for abnormal sounds (D) is not related to the process of an IVP.
Question 5 of 5
While managing a client after a medical or surgical procedure for bladder stones, when should the nurse notify the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing and recognizing abnormal findings is crucial in post-procedure care for bladder stones. This includes monitoring for signs of infection, urinary retention, bleeding, or other complications that may require immediate medical intervention. Notifying the physician promptly allows for timely treatment and prevents potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the immediate post-procedure care for bladder stones and do not require immediate physician notification.