Which of the following best describes the Gram stain process?

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microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following best describes the Gram stain process?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Gram stain process involves staining bacterial cells with crystal violet and iodine, followed by decolorization and counterstaining. The primary differentiation is based on the cell wall structure, distinguishing bacteria into Gram-positive (retain purple color) and Gram-negative (lose purple color). This classification is crucial in microbiology for treatment decisions as it correlates with different antibiotic susceptibilities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Gram stain process does not primarily focus on flagella, shape, or motility of bacteria.

Question 2 of 9

A 23-year old medical student arrives in the student health clinic complaining of difficult in swallowing, sore throat, and chills. Upon examination, she is found to be running a fever and has white patches on her tonsils. A throat swab is positive for streptococcus pyogenes (group A). A diagnosis of acute pharyngitis is made. Her past medical history is unremarkable except an anaphylactic reaction to cefaclor two years ago. Which of the following would be a safe alternative for treating?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic that is safe to use in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to beta-lactam antibiotics like cefaclor. Clindamycin is effective against streptococcus pyogenes and is a suitable alternative in this case. Amoxicillin (choice A) is a beta-lactam antibiotic similar to cefaclor and may cause a cross-reactive allergic reaction. Meropenem (choice B) is a carbapenem antibiotic and not typically used for acute pharyngitis. Cephalexin (choice C) is a cephalosporin antibiotic and may also cause cross-reactivity in patients with a history of anaphylaxis to cefaclor.

Question 3 of 9

Nigrosin is a stain used in:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nigrosin is used in negative staining, where the background is stained instead of the cells themselves. This technique helps highlight the morphology and structure of cells that may be damaged by traditional staining methods. Nigrosin is negatively charged and repels the negatively charged bacterial cells, resulting in a clear halo around the cells. This process is particularly useful for observing capsules and determining cell size and shape. The other options are incorrect because simple staining uses a single dye to color the entire cell, gram staining involves a series of dyes to differentiate between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, and acid-fast staining is used to detect acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium.

Question 4 of 9

Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material. A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses. B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses. C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses. In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.

Question 5 of 9

Production of RNA and DNA is called

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Transcription. This is the process where the DNA sequence is copied into an RNA molecule. It is the initial step in gene expression. A: RNA splicing is the process of removing introns from pre-mRNA to create a mature mRNA molecule. B: Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins using the information from mRNA. C: Transposition is the movement of genetic elements within a genome. In summary, transcription specifically refers to the synthesis of RNA from DNA, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.

Question 6 of 9

A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.

Question 7 of 9

After continuous treatment with antibiotics a patient got symptoms of stomatitis. Examination of specimens of oral mucous membrane revealed some oval polymorphous Gram-positive microorganisms arranged in clusters. What microorganism may be the cause of such manifestations?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: S.aureus. Stomatitis is commonly caused by S.aureus due to its ability to form clusters of oval polymorphous Gram-positive microorganisms. S.aureus is known to colonize the oral mucous membrane and can cause infections, especially after prolonged antibiotic use. Explanation for other choices: A: С.albicans - Candida albicans is a fungus commonly associated with oral thrush, not typically causing stomatitis. B: C.perfringens - Clostridium perfringens is a bacterium associated with food poisoning and gas gangrene, not commonly causing stomatitis. D: S.pyogenes - Streptococcus pyogenes is known to cause strep throat and skin infections, but not typically associated with stomatitis.

Question 8 of 9

In serologic reactions used in virology, a diagnostic antibody response should be taken into account if:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a fourfold increase in titer in the second serum sample indicates a significant rise in specific antibodies, which is crucial for diagnosing viral infections accurately. This increase is considered significant in serologic reactions as it shows a strong antibody response to the virus. A: A threshold increase may not be substantial enough to confirm a diagnostic antibody response. B: Dismissing the increase in titer would overlook important diagnostic information. C: A twofold increase may not be as indicative of a strong antibody response compared to a fourfold increase.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following statements for S. Aureus is FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because Staphylococcus aureus can develop resistance to penicillin over time due to the production of beta-lactamase enzymes. This resistance mechanism makes it no longer susceptible to penicillin. The other choices are correct: B) S. aureus can produce beta hemolysis, C) it produces various toxins like hemolysins, leucocidins, and enterotoxins, and D) it shows a positive catalase reaction due to the presence of catalase enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.

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