Which of the following best describes bacterial conjugation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because bacterial conjugation involves the transfer of genetic material through a sex pilus from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. This process allows for the exchange of genetic material and can lead to increased genetic diversity within bacterial populations. Option B is incorrect because the uptake of free DNA from the environment is known as transformation, not conjugation. Option C is incorrect as transfer of DNA by bacteriophages is called transduction, not conjugation. Option D is incorrect because binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria, not a mechanism for genetic exchange.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cell cultures. Rotavirus diagnosis involves detecting viral antigens in stool samples using cell cultures. Cell cultures allow for the replication of the virus, facilitating its identification. A: Egg inoculation and B: Sensitive laboratory animals are not commonly used for Rotavirus diagnosis due to ethical concerns and practical limitations. C: Ascoli test is used for detecting specific proteins in serum, not for Rotavirus detection in stool samples. In summary, cell cultures are the most appropriate method for laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection due to their ability to support viral replication and antigen detection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: sterols. Eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes contain sterols, such as cholesterol, which provide stability and regulate fluidity. This is a key characteristic that distinguishes them from prokaryotic membranes. Cellulose (A) is a component of plant cell walls, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Starch (B) is a carbohydrate used for energy storage in plants. Chitin (C) is a component of fungal cell walls and arthropod exoskeletons, not found in eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rubella virus. Rubella virus does not belong to the family Paramyxoviridae because it belongs to the Togaviridae family. The other choices, A (Measles virus), B (Respiratory syncytial virus), and C (Mumps virus) are all members of the Paramyxoviridae family. This classification is based on the genetic and structural characteristics of the viruses. Rubella virus is distinct in its genetic composition and replication cycle compared to the Paramyxoviridae family, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin to check for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction in individuals exposed to TB. B: BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine used for TB prevention, not for diagnostic testing. C: DTP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not TB. D: Tularinum is not a standard immunobiological preparation used for TB testing. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the Mantoux test.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is the only choice that matches the description of cysts with four nuclei, characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes amoebiasis, leading to symptoms like persistent diarrhea. The other choices can be eliminated for the following reasons: B: Balantidium coli - It is a ciliated protozoan that causes dysentery in humans but does not produce cysts with four nuclei. C: Giardia lamblia - It is a flagellated protozoan that causes giardiasis, but it forms cysts with only two nuclei. D: Trichomonas hominis - It is a flagellated protozoan found in the human intestine, but it does not produce cysts with four nuclei. Therefore, based on the description of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample,

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella pertussis. Glossy smooth colonies growing on casein-charcoal agar resembling mercury drops indicate Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of whooping cough. The presence of short Gram-negative bacteria further supports this identification. Option B, Haemophilus influenzae, typically grows as small, round, translucent colonies on chocolate agar. Option C, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, forms gray colonies on tellurite agar. Option D, Klebsiella pneumoniae, appears as mucoid colonies on MacConkey agar.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan parasite commonly found in vaginal infections. The presence of flagellated bacteria in the vaginal discharge stained with Romanovsky-Giemsa method indicates a protozoan infection, ruling out bacterial or viral causes. Choices B, C, and D are not correct as Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness, and Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine, not typically associated with vaginal infections.