Which of the following best describes a Gram-negative bacterium?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following best describes a Gram-negative bacterium?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides, which is a key characteristic used in Gram staining. This outer membrane is responsible for the pink/red color seen when stained with Gram stain. Choice A is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer. Choice C is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria stain pink, not purple. Choice D is incorrect because all bacteria have a cell wall, but Gram-negative bacteria have a different structure compared to Gram-positive bacteria.

Question 2 of 9

The generic name of a drug refers to its __________ name.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: nonproprietary. The generic name of a drug is the official, nonproprietary name given to a drug by an organization such as the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). This name is not owned by any specific company and is used universally to identify the drug's active ingredient. The generic name helps to communicate the specific medication being prescribed and allows for cost-effective options for consumers. A: Trade name refers to the brand name given to a drug by a pharmaceutical company. B: Proprietary name is another term for the trade name, specific to the company that produces the drug. C: Chemical name refers to the exact chemical composition of the drug, which may not be user-friendly or easily recognized by healthcare professionals or consumers.

Question 3 of 9

A patient had been provisionally diagnosed with syphilis. A laboratory assistant took the blood serum for an immunologic test based on the detection of antibodies preventing the movement of treponemas and causing their death. What reaction was used for the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilization. This technique is called the Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test, used to diagnose syphilis. The rationale is as follows: 1. TPI test detects antibodies that prevent the movement of treponemas, causing their death. 2. By immobilizing the treponemas, it indicates the presence of specific antibodies against syphilis. 3. This test is highly specific for syphilis diagnosis as it directly targets the causative agent. Other choices are incorrect: B: Complement binding - Not specific to syphilis, more commonly used for other diseases. C: Agglutination - Detects clumping of particles, not specific to treponemas or syphilis. D: Precipitation - Involves the formation of a solid, not directly related to treponema movement or death.

Question 4 of 9

A child with fever and a sore throat had a Gram-stained smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were beta-hemolytic. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in chains suggests a streptococcal infection. Beta-hemolysis indicates the production of a hemolysin that lyses red blood cells, a characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is known to cause strep throat and can present with fever and sore throat. Summary: - B: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia but typically appears as lancet-shaped cocci, not in chains. - C: Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci in clusters, not chains, and is not typically beta-hemolytic. - D: Enterococcus faecalis is a gram-positive cocci that are part of the normal gut flora and are not typically beta-hemolytic or found in chains.

Question 5 of 9

In which of the following cases of immune reactions a large lattice is formed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because in immune reactions, a large lattice is formed when antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion. This optimal ratio allows for the formation of a strong antigen-antibody complex, leading to the aggregation of immune complexes into large lattice structures. When antibodies are in excess (choice A), there may not be enough antigens to form a stable lattice. Similarly, when antigens are in excess (choice C), there may be insufficient antibodies to form a strong lattice. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal proportion of antigens and antibodies is crucial for the formation of large lattices in immune reactions.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produces a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Shigella dysenteriae produces Shiga toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating the 60S ribosomal subunit. This disrupts the translation process, leading to cell death. Escherichia coli (choice B) does not produce a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis. Clostridium tetani (choice C) produces tetanospasmin, which affects the nervous system. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) produces toxins that cause food poisoning but do not inhibit protein synthesis.

Question 7 of 9

A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.

Question 8 of 9

Chitin is a component of the cell wall of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chitin is a polysaccharide found in the cell walls of fungi. Bacteria have cell walls made of peptidoglycan, not chitin. Viruses do not have cell walls as they are acellular entities. Therefore, the correct answer is A: fungi.

Question 9 of 9

Patients after transplantation of allogeneic stem cells are monitored periodically for reactivation of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CMV. Patients after allogeneic stem cell transplantation are monitored for CMV reactivation due to its potential to cause severe complications in immunocompromised individuals. CMV can lead to organ damage and even mortality in these patients. Monitoring for CMV reactivation allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Incorrect Choices: A: HAV - Hepatitis A virus reactivation is not commonly monitored in post-transplant patients. C: Rubella virus - Rubella is not a common concern for reactivation in this patient population. D: Measles virus - Measles reactivation is not typically monitored in these patients.

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