ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following best defines the process of evaluating a nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because evaluating a nursing intervention involves collecting data to determine if the goals set for the intervention were achieved. This process helps in assessing the effectiveness of the intervention in meeting the desired outcomes. Option B is incorrect as it refers to the identification of nursing diagnoses for new problems, which is part of the nursing assessment phase, not evaluation. Option C is incorrect as adjusting the care plan to include collaborative interventions is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation. Option D is incorrect as performing client care tasks as per protocol is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation.
Question 2 of 5
What equipment should the nurse prepare for the primary care provider when a woman says she is concerned about possible Chlamydia infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia collection kit. The primary care provider will need the collection kit to gather a sample for testing. A Chlamydia slide (A) is not necessary as the provider needs to collect a sample first. A Chlamydia swab (C) is used to collect the sample, not to provide to the provider. A Chlamydia wet mount (D) is not appropriate for Chlamydia testing, as it is typically used for other types of infections.
Question 3 of 5
A patient complains of tingling in his fingers. He has positive Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs. He says that he feels depressed. Choose the most likely serum calcium (Ca ) value for this patient:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 11mg/dl. This patient is likely experiencing hypocalcemia, indicated by positive Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. These signs suggest neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. A serum calcium level of 11mg/dl is higher than normal, indicating possible hyperparathyroidism causing high calcium levels. Choices B, C, and D are lower than normal, which would exacerbate symptoms rather than alleviate them.
Question 4 of 5
The dietary practice that will help a client reduce the dietary intake of sodium is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoiding the use of carbonated beverages. Carbonated beverages often have high sodium content, which can contribute to increased sodium intake. By avoiding these beverages, the client can significantly reduce their sodium consumption. Explanation: 1. Carbonated beverages often contain added sodium for flavor enhancement. 2. By avoiding carbonated beverages, the client eliminates a significant source of hidden sodium in their diet. 3. This dietary practice directly targets reducing sodium intake without compromising other nutritional aspects of the diet. Summary of other choices: A: Increasing the use of dairy products - Dairy products do not necessarily impact sodium intake significantly. B: Using an artificial sweetener in coffee - Artificial sweeteners do not contribute to sodium intake. D: Using catsup for cooking and flavoring food - Catsup is high in sodium and would not help in reducing sodium intake.
Question 5 of 5
Postural Hypotension is A drop in systolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because postural hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg or a drop in diastolic blood pressure of greater than 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing from a sitting or supine position. Therefore, a drop in systolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when changing from lying to sitting is indicative of postural hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as postural hypotension is primarily defined by changes in systolic blood pressure, not diastolic. Choice C is incorrect because a drop in diastolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg is not the defining characteristic of postural hypotension. Choice D is not provided.