Which of the following benzodiazepines is more likely to cause “hangover” effects such as drowsiness dysphoria and mental or motor depression the following day?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Triazolam. Triazolam has a short half-life and rapid onset of action, making it more likely to cause "hangover" effects the next day due to its fast clearance from the body. This can lead to residual sedation, drowsiness, dysphoria, and mental or motor depression. In contrast, choices A, C, and D have longer half-lives and slower onset of action, reducing the likelihood of significant hangover effects. Oxazepam (A) is known for its long half-life and minimal hangover effects. Clorazepate (C) and Lorazepam (D) also have longer durations of action compared to Triazolam, making them less likely to cause next-day hangover effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Antacids, such as calcium carbonate or magnesium hydroxide, are weak bases that neutralize stomach acid (hydrochloric acid) by forming salt and water. This reaction helps to relieve symptoms of heartburn and indigestion. Option B is incorrect as antacids indeed react with gastric acid. Option C is incorrect as not all choices are correct, and Option D is incorrect as at least one of the choices is correct.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Ticlopidine is a thienopyridine derivative that inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation. 2. By inhibiting the binding of ADP to its platelet receptor, it prevents platelet activation and aggregation. 3. This mechanism of action makes ticlopidine an effective antiplatelet medication for preventing clot formation. 4. Therefore, the statement that ticlopidine is an inhibitor of ADP-induced platelet aggregation is TRUE. Summary of other choices: - Choice B (FALSE): This is incorrect as ticlopidine is indeed an inhibitor of ADP-induced platelet aggregation. - Choice C (All): This is incorrect as ticlopidine is not classified as affecting all types of platelet aggregation. - Choice D (None of the above): This is incorrect as the correct answer is A, making this choice invalid.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verapamil. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that slows conduction through the AV node, making it effective in terminating supraventricular tachycardias. Nifedipine, choice A, is also a calcium channel blocker but is not typically used intravenously for this purpose. Choice C is incorrect because only Verapamil is specifically indicated for terminating supraventricular tachycardias. Choice D is incorrect as Verapamil is the correct drug for this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that causes vasodilation. 2. Vasodilation leads to a decrease in blood pressure. 3. To compensate, the body may exhibit reflex tachycardia. 4. Therefore, nifedipine routinely produces tachycardia. Summary of incorrect choices: A. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that slows heart rate. B. Clonidine is a centrally-acting alpha-2 agonist that decreases sympathetic outflow, leading to bradycardia. C. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that does not directly affect heart rate.