ATI RN
medical microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacterial species is known for its spore-forming ability?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacillus subtilis. Bacillus subtilis is known for its spore-forming ability, which is a survival mechanism to withstand harsh conditions. Spore formation allows the bacteria to become dormant and resistant to heat, chemicals, and radiation. Escherichia coli (A) is not known for spore formation. Staphylococcus aureus (B) does not form spores either. Listeria monocytogenes (D) is a pathogenic bacterium but does not typically form spores.
Question 2 of 9
The time in minutes in which 90% of the bacterial population will be killed at a given temperature is called the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: decimal reduction time. This term represents the time required at a specific temperature to kill 90% of a bacterial population. It is a key parameter in microbiology to determine the effectiveness of a given heat treatment. Generation time (A) refers to the time it takes for a population to double in size. Thermal death time (B) is the shortest time needed to kill all organisms at a specific temperature. Sterilization time (C) is a general term and does not specifically refer to the time required to kill 90% of the population.
Question 3 of 9
The transcription is...
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because transcription is the process in which messenger RNA transcripts are produced from DNA. During transcription, a specific segment of DNA is transcribed into mRNA by RNA polymerase. Choice A is incorrect because translation, not transcription, involves converting mRNA into protein. Choice B is incorrect as it describes DNA replication, not transcription. Choice D is incorrect because it refers to translation, where polypeptides are synthesized from mRNA. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process of transcription.
Question 4 of 9
A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of its colonies. This bacterium is commonly associated with purulent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. Proteus vulgaris (B) is not typically associated with blue-green pigment production. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) does not produce blue-green pigment and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and pigment production, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely causative agent in this case.
Question 5 of 9
Taeniasis is an infection caused by organisms known as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: tapeworms. Taeniasis is specifically caused by tapeworms of the Taenia species, such as Taenia solium. These parasitic worms infect the intestines of humans through consumption of contaminated food or water. Ringworms (choice A), hookworms (choice B), and pinworms (choice D) are all different types of parasites that cause distinct infections in the body, not taeniasis. Tapeworms are the only organisms among the choices that are directly associated with taeniasis due to their unique life cycle and mode of infection.
Question 6 of 9
Among public catering workers examined by doctors of sanitary and epidemiologic station often occur asymptomatic parasite carriers. This means that a healthy person carries cysts that infect other people. Such parasitizing is possible for the following causative agent:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Dysenteric amoeba (Choice A) is the correct answer because it can exist asymptomatically in carriers and be transmitted through cysts. 2. Malarial plasmodium (Choice B) causes malaria, not carried asymptomatically in cysts. 3. Intestinal trichomonad (Choice C) causes trichomoniasis, not carried asymptomatically in cysts. 4. Dermatotropic leishmania (Choice D) causes skin lesions, not carried asymptomatically in cysts.
Question 7 of 9
A 32 y.o. man is divorced, has an irregular sexual life. He complains of falling out of hair in the region of eyelashes, eyebrows, scalp. Objectively: diffuse alopecia is observed, eyebrow margin is absent, eyelashes are stair-like (Pinkus' sign). What examination should be carried out first of all?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wasserman test, IFT. The patient's symptoms of diffuse alopecia and Pinkus' sign are suggestive of secondary syphilis. The Wasserman test and Immunofluorescence Test (IFT) are used to detect antibodies against Treponema pallidum, the bacterium causing syphilis. This would confirm or rule out syphilis as the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice B (T.pallidum Immobilization Test) is similar to the Wasserman test but less commonly used. Choice C (Detection of the nasal mucous membrane for M.leprae) is irrelevant as leprosy does not present with the described symptoms. Choice D (Consultation of neuropathist) is premature without ruling out syphilis first. Thus, the Wasserman test, IFT should be the initial examination to investigate the likely cause of the patient's symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
On examination of a 6-year-old child the doctor noticed greyish film on the child's tonsils. Microscopy of the smear stained by Neisser method detected there Corynebacterium diphtheria. What morphologic feature was the most indicative for determining the type of the agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polar placement of volutin granules. This feature is indicative of Corynebacterium diphtheria. Volutin granules are metachromatic granules found in the polar region of the bacterial cell, which is characteristic of this species. This feature helps differentiate it from other bacteria. Explanation: A: Fence-like position of the agent's cells is not a specific morphologic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. B: Spores that exceed cells in diameter is not a characteristic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. D: Presence of the capsule is not a distinguishing morphologic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheria. In summary, the polar placement of volutin granules is the most indicative feature for determining the type of agent as Corynebacterium diphtheria, making it the correct choice.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has roundish ulcers on his face, inflammation and enlargement of lymph nodes. These symptoms turned up as a result of mosquito bites. Laboratory examination of discharge from the ulcers revealed unicellular aflagellar organisms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Dermatotropic leishmaniasis. The roundish ulcers, lymph node enlargement, and presence of unicellular aflagellar organisms in discharge are characteristic of this parasitic infection transmitted by sandfly bites. Leishmania parasites cause skin lesions and lymphadenopathy. Toxoplasmosis (B) presents with flu-like symptoms, not ulcers. Scabies (C) causes intense itching and burrows, not ulcers. Trypanosomiasis (D) presents with fever, not ulcers. In this case, the symptoms align closely with Dermatotropic leishmaniasis, making it the most likely diagnosis.