ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.
Question 2 of 9
For measles virus is true that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contains single-stranded RNA with negative polarity. Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded RNA genome that is negative-sense. This means it must first be transcribed into positive-sense RNA before it can be translated. Choice A is incorrect as the measles virus does have an outer envelope. Choice C is incorrect as measles virus belongs to the family Paramyxoviridae, not Togaviridae. Choice D is incorrect as measles virus can be grown on cell cultures, specifically on Vero cells.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a deep tissue infection had Gram-negative rods isolated from the wound culture. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and non-lactose fermenters. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas is a Gram-negative rod, oxidase-positive, and non-lactose fermenter. These characteristics are typical of Pseudomonas species. B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod but is lactose fermenter and usually oxidase-negative. C: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenter, but is usually oxidase-negative and is more associated with causing shigellosis rather than deep tissue infections.
Question 5 of 9
Drugs needed for diseases with fewer than 200,000 patients, and that fail to receive attention for development because of cost and need, are called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: orphan drugs. Orphan drugs are medications developed to treat rare diseases affecting fewer than 200,000 patients. These diseases often lack attention from pharmaceutical companies due to the high cost and limited market potential. Orphan drugs receive special incentives and regulatory support to encourage their development. A: Secondary drugs do not specifically refer to medications for rare diseases. B: Minor drugs is not a recognized term in the context of rare disease medications. D: Specialty drugs typically refer to high-cost medications used to treat complex or chronic conditions, but not necessarily rare diseases.
Question 6 of 9
Bacteriological laboratory examines canned meat whether it contains botulinum toxin. For this purpose an extract of test specimen and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types were introduced to a group of mice under examination; a control group of mice got the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this scenario, the antibotulinic serum of types A, B, and E were introduced to neutralize the botulinum toxin in the test specimen. The serological reaction applied here involves the neutralization of the toxin by the specific antibodies present in the serum. This process prevents the toxin from causing harm to the mice. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - This involves the formation of insoluble complexes between antigen and antibody, not the specific neutralization seen in this case. C: Complement binding - This involves activation of the complement system leading to cell lysis, not the direct neutralization of toxin. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to determine the presence of specific antibodies or antigens based on their diffusion patterns, not the neutralization of toxin as seen in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
Stroma is a component of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: mitochondria. Stroma is a component of chloroplasts, not mitochondria. Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes, not stroma. Mitochondria have an inner and outer membrane structure, with the matrix containing the stroma where important metabolic processes occur. This is where the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation take place. Stroma in chloroplasts is where photosynthesis occurs. So, the correct answer is B because stroma is a component of mitochondria, where crucial energy production processes happen.
Question 8 of 9
For the structure of rubella virus, it is true that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.
Question 9 of 9
The cleaning of glassware and tableware in restaurants falls into the category of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: sanitization. Sanitization is the process of reducing the number of microorganisms on surfaces to a safe level. In restaurants, cleaning glassware and tableware aims to eliminate harmful bacteria to prevent foodborne illnesses. Degermation (A) focuses on removing germs from a specific area, sterilization (B) eliminates all microorganisms, and disinfection (C) reduces the number of pathogens but may not completely eliminate them, making them less effective choices for this context.