ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.
Question 2 of 5
During the skill-building session in microbiology the students need to stain the prepared and fixed sputum smears obtained from a tuberculosis patient. What staining technique should be used in this case?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct staining technique for staining sputum smears from a tuberculosis patient is Ziehl-Neelsen staining. This technique uses a carbol fuchsin stain that specifically stains acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The steps involved include staining with carbol fuchsin, decolorizing with acid-alcohol, counterstaining with methylene blue, and then examining under a microscope. This staining method is crucial for detecting the acid-fast bacilli characteristic of tuberculosis. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative, not suitable for acid-fast organisms like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B: Giemsa staining is used for detecting parasites and certain types of white blood cells, not specific for acid-fast bacteria. D: Burry staining is not a recognized staining technique in microbiology for staining acid-fast organisms.
Question 3 of 5
On a certain territory mass death of rodents was registered. It was suspected that their death might have been caused by plague. What serological reaction should be applied for quick identification of antigen of the causative agent of this epizooty?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agglutination. During a suspected plague outbreak, agglutination testing is used to quickly identify the antigen of the causative agent. In this test, specific antibodies are added to a sample containing the suspected antigen. If the antigen is present, it will clump together (agglutinate) with the antibodies, indicating a positive result. This method is rapid and efficient for identifying the presence of the plague-causing agent. Choice A: Precipitation involves the formation of a visible precipitate when antigen and antibody react, but it is not as quick or specific as agglutination for identifying the antigen in this scenario. Choice C: Passive hemagglutination is a variation of agglutination that uses red blood cells as carriers for antigens or antibodies. While it can be useful in certain situations, it is not typically the first choice for rapid identification of plague antigen. Choice D: Complement binding is a different type of
Question 4 of 5
For cultivation of Brucella, pure cultures should be incubated in CO2 enriched atmosphere. What type of breathing is typical for Brucella?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capnophilic. Brucella requires a CO2 enriched atmosphere for cultivation, making it capnophilic. This is because Brucella is a microaerophilic bacterium that thrives in low oxygen conditions and elevated CO2 levels. Choice B (Facultative anaerobic) and D (Obligate aerobic) are incorrect as Brucella does not grow well under aerobic conditions. Choice C (Obligate anaerobic) is also incorrect as Brucella can grow in the presence of oxygen, although it prefers low oxygen environments.
Question 5 of 5
A 16-year-old adolescent was vaccinated with DTP. In eight days there was stiffness and pain in the joints, subfebrile temperature, urticarial skin eruption, enlargement of inguinal, cervical lymph nodes and spleen. What kind of allergic reaction is observed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypersensitivity of delayed type. The symptoms described occur 5-10 days after exposure to the antigen, consistent with a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves T cells and is characterized by cell-mediated immune response, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms of allergic reactions. Immunocomplex reactions (choice A) involve antigen-antibody complexes depositing in tissues, immediate hypersensitivity reactions (choice B) involve IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, and cytotoxic reactions (choice C) involve antibodies targeting specific cells for destruction.