ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a sore throat and fever had a throat smear stained with Gram's method, revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is known to cause sore throat and fever, commonly referred to as strep throat. Gram's stain showing Gram-positive cocci in chains is characteristic of Streptococcus species. Streptococcus pyogenes is a beta-hemolytic bacterium that forms chains and is a common cause of bacterial pharyngitis. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci that forms clusters, not chains. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is not associated with sore throat. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is a Gram-positive cocci that can cause infections but is not typically associated with sore throat.
Question 3 of 9
A 25-year-old patient was delivered to an infectious diseases unit on the 3rd day of illness with complaints of headache, pain in lumbar spine and gastrocnemius muscles, high fever, chill. Objectively: condition of moderate severity. Scleras are icteric. Pharynx is hyperemic. Tongue is dry with dry brown coating. Abdomen is distended. Liver is enlarged by 2 cm. Spleen is not enlarged. Palpation of muscles, especially gastrocnemius muscles, is painful. Urine is dark in color. Stool is normal in color. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct diagnosis is Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis presents with headache, fever, muscle pain, jaundice, and kidney involvement. The patient's symptoms of headache, lumbar and muscle pain, high fever, icteric scleras, and dark urine are classic for Leptospirosis. The enlarged liver could be due to liver involvement in the disease. The absence of splenic enlargement and normal stool color rule out malaria. Infectious mononucleosis typically presents with sore throat and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case. Viral hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but the presence of muscle pain and dark urine is more indicative of Leptospirosis. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and clinical findings, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 4 of 9
There are __________ known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: five. Escherichia coli can cause enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC), and diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC). Each form has distinct characteristics and pathogenesis. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli.
Question 5 of 9
For the structure of rubella virus, it is true that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Rubella virus belongs to the Togaviridae family, which typically exhibits icosahedral symmetry. Step 2: Icosahedral symmetry refers to a structure with 20 equilateral triangular faces, which is characteristic of many viruses, including rubella. Step 3: Therefore, choice A is correct as rubella virus indeed has icosahedral type of symmetry. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. - Choice C is incorrect as rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. - Choice D is incorrect as rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface.
Question 6 of 9
The spores of bacteria can be stained by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Method of Moller. This method uses malachite green to stain bacterial spores due to their resistance to decolorization. The other choices, A, B, and D, are incorrect because Romanovski-Gymsa is used for staining blood smears, Ziehl-Nielsen is used for acid-fast bacteria, and Neisser is used for staining Neisseria species, not bacterial spores.
Question 7 of 9
Fungi are free-living _________ organisms:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: heterotrophic. Fungi are heterotrophic organisms that obtain nutrients by absorbing organic compounds from their environment. They do not produce their own food through photosynthesis (option A: autotrophic) or chemosynthesis (option B: chemotrophic). Fungi also do not rely on light for energy (option D: phototrophic). Therefore, the correct choice is C as it accurately describes the nutritional mode of fungi.
Question 8 of 9
Sanitary important bacteria for control of air quality are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This bacterium is important for controlling air quality as it can degrade a wide range of organic compounds present in the air, helping to maintain a clean and healthy environment. Alpha and beta-hemolytic streptococci (Choice A) are not typically associated with air quality control. E. coli (Choice C) and Salmonella spp. (Choice D) are more commonly found in water and food sources, not air, making them incorrect choices for this question. Pseudomonas aeruginosa's ability to break down organic matter in the air makes it the most suitable option for maintaining sanitary air quality.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacterium is known for producing an exotoxin that causes severe diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. 2. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not diarrhea. 3. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not diarrhea. 4. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not typical diarrhea. Summary: A: Incorrect, causes tetanus. B: Incorrect, causes botulism. C: Correct, produces cholera toxin causing severe diarrhea. D: Incorrect, causes dysentery.