Which of the following bacteria produces an endotoxin responsible for septic shock?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produces an endotoxin responsible for septic shock?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, and Neisseria meningitidis all produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, such as E. coli and N. meningitidis, which can trigger a severe immune response leading to septic shock. S. aureus, a Gram-positive bacterium, produces toxins that can also contribute to septic shock. Therefore, all of these bacteria can produce endotoxins responsible for septic shock. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they only identify individual bacteria that produce endotoxins, whereas the correct answer encompasses all bacteria listed.

Question 2 of 9

Which bacteria are associated with causing foodborne infections?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria (Clostridium botulinum, Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica) are known to cause foodborne infections. Clostridium botulinum can lead to botulism, E. coli can cause various gastrointestinal illnesses, and Salmonella enterica is a common cause of food poisoning. Each bacterium has specific mechanisms that result in foodborne illnesses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacterium mentioned is associated with causing foodborne infections, making them collectively the correct answer.

Question 3 of 9

During sanitary and bacteriological testing of water with the membrane filter technique there were revealed two red colonies on a membrane filter (Endo agar) through which 500 ml of water was filtred. Calculate the coli index and coli titer of the analyzed water:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (coli index of 250 and coli titer of 4). The coli index is calculated by multiplying the number of colonies by the reciprocal of the volume filtered, which gives 2 colonies x (1/0.5 L) = 4. The coli titer is obtained by dividing the volume filtered by the number of colonies, which gives 0.5 L / 2 colonies = 0.25 L or 250 ml. This indicates the concentration of coliform bacteria in the water sample. Choice A (4 and 250) is incorrect because it has the correct coli index but the values are reversed for coli index and coli titer. Choice B (2 and 500) is incorrect as it provides the correct coli titer value but the values are reversed for coli index and coli titer. Choice D (500 and 2) is incorrect because it reverses the values for both coli index and coli titer.

Question 4 of 9

Patients with similar complaints applied to the doctor: weakness, pain in the intestines, disorder of GIT. Examination of the feces revealed that one patient with four nucleus cysts should be hospitalized immediately. For what protozoa are such cysts typical?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dysenteric amoeba. 1. Dysenteric amoeba causes amoebiasis, which presents with symptoms like weakness, intestinal pain, and gastrointestinal disorders. 2. The presence of four-nucleus cysts in the feces indicates an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the causative agent of amoebiasis. 3. Multiple-nucleus cysts are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, distinguishing it from other protozoa. 4. Lamblia (choice A), Balantidium (choice C), and Trichomonas (choice D) are not associated with four-nucleus cysts or the mentioned symptoms, making them incorrect choices.

Question 5 of 9

Erysipelas is a bacterial infection characterised by well-defined areas of bright-red, inflamed and rough or leathery skin. Which one is the causative agent:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for Choice C (Streptococcus pyogenes) being the correct answer: 1. Erysipelas is a skin infection characterized by well-defined red, inflamed skin areas. 2. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common causative agent of erysipelas. 3. This bacterium produces enzymes that break down skin proteins, leading to the characteristic symptoms of erysipelas. 4. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing skin infections, including erysipelas. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: Typically causes opportunistic infections, but not commonly associated with erysipelas. B. Staphylococcus aureus: Can cause skin infections, but not typically associated with erysipelas. D. Candida albicans: Fungal infection, not a bacterium, and not known to cause erysipelas.

Question 6 of 9

Which one is not true for the adaptive immunity:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because adaptive immunity is not mainly observed in the skin and mucous membranes. Adaptive immunity is a systemic response that involves specific immune cells and antibodies targeting specific pathogens. It develops immune memory (B), meaning it can recognize and respond faster upon re-exposure to the same pathogen. Adaptive immunity also has specificity (C), as it can target specific antigens. Lastly, adaptive immunity is not evolutionarily newer in comparison to innate immunity (D), as both systems have co-evolved to provide comprehensive protection against pathogens.

Question 7 of 9

A defined microorganism can be isolated in pure culture:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because isolating a defined microorganism in pure culture involves obtaining a single, distinct colony on solid media. This ensures that only one type of microorganism is present in the culture, preventing contamination. Liquid media can harbor multiple organisms, making it challenging to isolate a specific microorganism. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choice B is also incorrect as liquid nutrient media does not provide the necessary isolation required for pure culture. Choice D is incorrect because isolating from single colonies on solid media allows for the pure culture of the defined microorganism.

Question 8 of 9

All statements about plasmids are correct except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because plasmids do not encode essential bacterial properties. They are non-essential, extra-chromosomal DNA molecules that can replicate independently within bacterial cells. Plasmids mainly contain genes for antibiotic resistance, genetic transfer, and other specific functions. Choice A is correct as many plasmids do carry antibiotic resistance genes. Choice B is also accurate as plasmids are indeed smaller, circular, and exist outside the bacterial chromosome. Choice D is true as plasmids can facilitate bacterial conjugation, allowing the transfer of genetic material between bacteria.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following diseases is considered to fall in the group II category?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mumps. Group II diseases are vaccine-preventable diseases that are communicable and can cause outbreaks. Mumps fits this criteria as it is preventable through vaccination, easily transmitted through respiratory droplets, and can lead to outbreaks in communities. Anthrax (A) is a zoonotic disease, Lyme disease (B) is transmitted by ticks, and Smallpox (D) has been eradicated.

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