ATI RN
medical microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria produces a toxin that causes severe diarrhea?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria listed can produce toxins that cause severe diarrhea. Clostridium difficile produces toxins that can lead to antibiotic-associated diarrhea, Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that causes cholera, and certain strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins that result in severe diarrhea. Therefore, choosing option D is correct because all the mentioned bacteria can cause severe diarrhea. Options A, B, and C are incorrect individually because each bacterium listed can produce a toxin resulting in severe diarrhea.
Question 2 of 9
For destruction of spore forms of microorganisms is used:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: autoclaving. Autoclaving is a process that uses high pressure and steam to achieve temperatures above the boiling point of water, typically around 121-134°C. This high heat and pressure are effective in destroying spore forms of microorganisms, which are highly resistant structures that can withstand boiling temperatures. Autoclaving ensures the complete destruction of spores, making it an effective method for sterilization. Rationale: A: Pasteurization uses lower heat compared to autoclaving and is not sufficient to destroy spore forms. C: Freezing does not effectively destroy spore forms, as most microorganisms can survive freezing temperatures. D: Boiling, while effective for many microorganisms, may not be sufficient to destroy spore forms due to their high resistance, unlike autoclaving.
Question 3 of 9
“Athlete’s foot†is referred to as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: tinea pedis. Athlete's foot is a fungal infection that affects the feet, specifically the skin between the toes and on the soles. "Tinea pedis" is the medical term for athlete's foot, with "tinea" meaning a fungal infection and "pedis" referring to the foot. A: tinea capitis refers to a fungal infection of the scalp, not the feet. B: tinea corporis refers to a fungal infection of the body, not specifically the feet. C: tinea versicolor refers to a fungal infection that causes discoloration of the skin, not typically on the feet. In summary, the other choices are incorrect because they refer to fungal infections affecting different parts of the body, whereas "tinea pedis" specifically refers to athlete's foot.
Question 4 of 9
The 32-year-old patient has been taking antituberculosis drugs. Later he noticed that his urine had become redorange in color. What drug is conductive to this phenomenon?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids like urine due to its metabolism. This phenomenon is harmless but alarming to patients. Isoniazid (B) can cause peripheral neuropathy, Pyrazinamide (C) can cause hyperuricemia, and Ethambutol (D) can cause optic neuropathy.
Question 5 of 9
Bacterial spores are resistant to harsh conditions due to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the presence of calcium dipicolinate in bacterial spores helps protect their DNA from damage under harsh conditions. Calcium dipicolinate acts as a stabilizer, preserving the spore structure. Choice A is incorrect as bacterial spores have a tough protein coat, not a lipid-rich membrane. Choice C is incorrect as bacterial spores have very low metabolic activity. Choice D is incorrect as bacterial spores have low water content to prevent damage during harsh conditions.
Question 6 of 9
Francisella tularensis is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gram-negative coccobacillus. Francisella tularensis is a Gram-negative coccobacillus because it has a unique shape that is between a coccus (spherical) and a bacillus (rod-shaped) and it stains pink/red in the Gram staining process. It is important to note that it is not a coccus (choice B) or a Gram-positive bacterium (choice A). Choice C is too general and does not specify the coccobacillus shape of F. tularensis. So, the correct answer is D due to its specific characteristics as a Gram-negative coccobacillus.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following organisms is used in the production of cheese?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Propionibacterium shermanii. This bacterium is used in the production of certain types of cheese, such as Swiss cheese, to create the characteristic holes and flavor. Propionibacterium produces carbon dioxide gas during fermentation, forming the holes in the cheese. Acetobacter aceti (B) is used in vinegar production. Giardia (C) is a parasite that causes gastrointestinal issues, not used in cheese production. Fusobacterium (D) is a type of bacteria associated with infections in humans, not used in cheese production.
Question 8 of 9
In an urban settlement situated on the riverbank, an outbreak of hepatitis A was registered. The disease might have water origin. This assumption can be confirmed by growth of the following values of water quality:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Index of fecal coli-forms. Fecal coli-forms are bacteria found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals, including humans. Their presence in water indicates fecal contamination, which is a common source of hepatitis A transmission. Monitoring the index of fecal coli-forms can help identify potential sources of contamination and assess the risk of disease transmission. A: Number of coli-phages - Coli-phages are viruses that infect coliform bacteria and are not directly related to fecal contamination. B: Escherichia coli index - While E. coli is a type of coliform bacteria found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals, it alone may not be a reliable indicator of fecal contamination in water sources. C: Oxidability - Oxidability is a measure of the water's ability to react with oxygen and does not provide direct information about fecal contamination or the presence of pathogens like hepatitis A. In summary,
Question 9 of 9
2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recepient has developed fever. What protozoal disease can it be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malaria. Fever developing 2 weeks post-blood transfusion is characteristic of malaria due to the incubation period of the parasite. Trypanosomiasis presents earlier, amebiasis usually causes GI symptoms, and toxoplasmosis typically manifests with flu-like symptoms. Malaria is the most likely cause based on the timing and clinical presentation.