ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria listed (Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium difficile, Escherichia coli) produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea. Clostridium difficile produces toxins causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Escherichia coli can produce toxins such as Shiga toxin causing severe gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, all the options listed are correct in producing toxins that can result in severe gastrointestinal illness.
Question 2 of 9
On the base of the clinical data a child was diagnosed with atypical pneumonia resistant to the effects of beta-lactam antibiotics. The patient's sputum was cultured and incubated in a special medium, which resulted in growth of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center (looking like fried eggs). What microorganism caused the disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a common cause of atypical pneumonia and is known to be resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. The description of microorganisms forming microscopic colonies with a dense center resembling fried eggs is characteristic of Mycoplasma pneumoniae colonies seen on special media. Summary of other choices: B: Klebsiella pneumoniae is not typically associated with atypical pneumonia and does not exhibit the described colony morphology. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae is not resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics and does not produce colonies with the described appearance. D: Legionella pneumophila is associated with Legionnaires' disease, not atypical pneumonia, and does not form colonies resembling fried eggs.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing pneumonia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacteria is known for causing pneumonia due to its ability to infect the lungs and cause inflammation leading to pneumonia symptoms. It is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) causes tuberculosis, not pneumonia. Escherichia coli (C) is associated with urinary tract infections and gastrointestinal infections, not pneumonia. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is known to cause infections in immunocompromised individuals but is not a common cause of pneumonia.
Question 4 of 9
The primary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Non-tender chancre (ulcus durum). In the primary stage of syphilis, an individual typically develops a painless ulcer known as a chancre at the site of infection. This ulcer is usually firm, round, and clean with well-defined borders. It is important to note that it is non-tender, which distinguishes it from other skin conditions. This characteristic helps healthcare providers differentiate syphilis from other sexually transmitted infections. Explanation for other choices: A: Diffuse maculopapular rash - This is more commonly associated with secondary syphilis. B: Purulent exudation from the urethra - This is not a typical presentation of primary syphilis. C: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas) - Gummas typically develop in the tertiary stage of syphilis, not in the primary stage.
Question 5 of 9
When cultured on solid growth media, bacteria with long O-specific chains form:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smooth S colonies. Bacteria with long O-specific chains are known as smooth strains, and when cultured on solid growth media, they form smooth colonies due to the presence of the O antigen. This gives them a glossy appearance. Rough R colonies (Choice B) lack O antigen and appear rough. Mucoid -M colonies (Choice C) are associated with capsules, not O-specific chains. H colonies (Choice D) are not relevant to the O-specific chains. Smooth S colonies are the characteristic phenotype of bacteria with long O-specific chains when cultured on solid media.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with diarrhea had fecal analysis revealing small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum. These bacteria do not form spores or capsules and thrive in alkaline conditions. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Small, curved Gram-negative bacilli with a monotrichous flagellum point towards a motile bacterium. Step 2: The absence of spores or capsules and preference for alkaline conditions further narrows down the possibilities. Step 3: Vibrio cholerae fits all criteria as it is a curved, motile, Gram-negative bacillus that thrives in alkaline environments. Summary: Escherichia coli is a facultative anaerobe, Salmonella and Shigella are non-flagellated, and all of them can form capsules or spores, unlike Vibrio cholerae.
Question 7 of 9
Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intestinal trichomonad. This protozoan matches the description provided, with pyriform shape, twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, supporting filaments, and a suctorial disc. Lamblia (A) lacks flagella and supporting filaments. Toxoplasma (B) is an intracellular parasite with different morphology. Leishmania (C) belongs to a different class with no flagella or supporting filaments. In summary, the unique combination of features described in the question points to an intestinal trichomonad, making it the correct answer.
Question 8 of 9
The tertiary stage of syphilis is usually manifested as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilitic granulomas (gummas). In the tertiary stage of syphilis, gummas, which are soft, tumor-like growths, can develop in various organs such as the skin, bones, liver, and brain. This stage typically occurs years after the initial infection and can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Purulent exudation from the urethra (B) is not specific to syphilis and may indicate other infections. Non-tender chancre (C) is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the tertiary stage. Diffuse maculopapular rash (D) is more commonly seen in the secondary stage of syphilis.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following has a higher resistance to environmental stresses than the others?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial endospores. Bacterial endospores have a higher resistance to environmental stresses due to their unique structure, which includes a tough outer layer that protects the spore from harsh conditions such as heat, chemicals, and radiation. This protective layer allows endospores to remain dormant and survive in unfavorable environments until conditions improve. Summary: B: Fungal spores - While fungal spores can also survive in harsh conditions, they are generally not as resistant as bacterial endospores due to differences in their protective structures. C: Enveloped viruses - Enveloped viruses are susceptible to environmental stresses as their lipid envelope can easily be damaged by heat, chemicals, and other factors. D: Vegetative bacterial cells - Vegetative bacterial cells are more susceptible to environmental stresses compared to endospores, as they do not have the same level of protective mechanisms to survive in unfavorable conditions.