ATI RN
microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria listed (Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium difficile, Escherichia coli) produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea. Clostridium difficile produces toxins causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Escherichia coli can produce toxins such as Shiga toxin causing severe gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, all the options listed are correct in producing toxins that can result in severe gastrointestinal illness.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for producing a neurotoxin that causes paralysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces the botulinum neurotoxin, which causes paralysis by blocking the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions. Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not paralysis. Escherichia coli is associated with gastrointestinal infections, not paralysis. Staphylococcus aureus produces enterotoxins causing food poisoning, not paralysis. Therefore, Clostridium botulinum is the correct choice based on its well-known association with paralysis due to botulinum neurotoxin production.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria listed (Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium difficile, Escherichia coli) produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea. Clostridium difficile produces toxins causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Escherichia coli can produce toxins such as Shiga toxin causing severe gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, all the options listed are correct in producing toxins that can result in severe gastrointestinal illness.
Question 4 of 9
A 33 year old patient was delivered to the infectious diseases department on the 7-th day of disease. He complained about great weakness, high temperature, pain in the lumbar area and leg muscles, icteritiousness, dark color of urine, headache. The acute disease started with chill, body temperature rise up to 40oC, headache, pain in the lumbar area and sural muscles. Icterus turned up on the 4th day, nasal and scleral haemorrhages came on the 5th day. Fever has lasted for 6 days. Diuresis - 200 ml. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is Leptospirosis. The symptoms described align with the classic presentation of Leptospirosis, such as fever, muscle pain, headache, jaundice, and hemorrhages. The initial symptoms of chills, high fever, and muscle pain followed by jaundice and hemorrhages are characteristic of Leptospirosis. The presence of dark urine and low diuresis also point towards kidney involvement, which is common in Leptospirosis due to renal failure. Additionally, the patient's history of potential exposure to contaminated water or soil supports the diagnosis, as Leptospirosis is commonly transmitted through contact with infected animal urine. Summary of other choices: - Typhoid fever typically presents with sustained fever, abdominal pain, and constipation, not matching the symptoms described. - Virus A hepatitis usually presents with jaundice, but other symptoms such as muscle pain and hemorrhages are not typical. - Sepsis is a systemic response
Question 5 of 9
A fecal smear from a patient with chronic diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. The presence of cysts with four nuclei is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite causing amoebic dysentery. It forms cysts with four nuclei before maturing into trophozoites. Balantidium coli (B) is a ciliated protozoan causing balantidiasis, not known for four-nuclei cysts. Giardia lamblia (C) forms cysts with two nuclei, causing giardiasis. Trichomonas hominis (D) is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human colon, not associated with four-nuclei cysts.
Question 6 of 9
A 10-year-old child had the mantoux tuberculin test administered. 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of the injection. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after the tuberculin injection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed response involving T cells. In this case, the appearance of a papule after 48 hours indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which is typical of a Type IV reaction. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Arthus phenomenon is a localized immune complex-mediated reaction, not seen in tuberculin tests. C: Seroreaction typically involves antibodies reacting with soluble antigens, not seen in this scenario. D: Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies targeting specific cells or tissues, which is not the mechanism at play in this case.
Question 7 of 9
Microscopic examination of a Gramstained scrape from patient's tongue revealed oval, round, elongated chains of dark-violet gemmating cells. What disease can be caused by this causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Oval, round, elongated chains of gemmating cells indicate yeast-like budding cells seen in Candida species. Step 2: Candidosis is caused by Candida species, which is commonly found in the oral cavity and can cause infections on the tongue. Step 3: Candidosis presents as white patches or plaques on the tongue. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is A: Candidosis. Summary: B: Actinomycosis is caused by Actinomyces species, which are filamentous bacteria, not oval budding cells. C: Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which appears as gram-positive rods in chains, not oval budding cells. D: Staphylococcal infections are caused by Staphylococcus species, which appear as clusters of cocci, not oval budding cells.
Question 8 of 9
Shigella sonnei can escape phagocytic clearance by which mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Shigella sonnei escapes phagocytic clearance by lysing the phagosome and replicating in the cytoplasm. This allows the bacterium to avoid being destroyed by the acidic environment and enzymes in the phagolysosome. Choice B is incorrect as Shigella does not have a capsule. Choice C is incorrect because Shigella actually induces phagosome-lysosome fusion to facilitate its escape. Choice D is incorrect as protein A is a component of Staphylococcus aureus, not Shigella sonnei.
Question 9 of 9
For treatment of Anthrax are used
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the treatment for Anthrax involves using antibiotics such as penicillins, tetracyclines, and macrolides to target the bacteria. Anti-anthrax gamma-globulins and immune-serum are used to provide passive immunity, but they are not the primary treatment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the necessary components for treating Anthrax. Overall, using a combination of antibiotics and immune-based treatments like gamma-globulins and immune-serum provides a comprehensive approach to managing Anthrax infection.