Which of the following bacteria produce endotoxins?

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mcgraw hill microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produce endotoxins?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a gram-negative bacterium, which means it has an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS), also known as endotoxins. Endotoxins are released when the bacterium is destroyed, causing an inflammatory response. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice A) is a gram-positive bacterium and does not produce endotoxins. Clostridium tetani (choice B) produces exotoxins, not endotoxins. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) is also a gram-positive bacterium and does not produce endotoxins. In summary, E. coli is the correct answer because it is a gram-negative bacterium that produces endotoxins, while the other choices are gram-positive bacteria that do not produce endotoxins.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is a major characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides, which play a role in pathogenicity and resistance to certain antibiotics. This outer membrane is a distinguishing feature of Gram-negative bacteria, as opposed to Gram-positive bacteria that have a thick peptidoglycan layer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer, do have a cell wall (although it is different from Gram-positive bacteria), and do not contain teichoic acids.

Question 3 of 9

The term “infectious process†means “all biological processes carried out after…â€

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the term "infectious process" refers to all biological processes that occur after the attachment and penetration of microbes into the host organism, regardless of whether there are clinical manifestations. This includes the colonization, multiplication, and spread of the microorganisms within the host. Explanation: A: Incorrect because it only mentions the attachment and penetration of microbes into the microorganism, missing the subsequent processes. C: Incorrect because it is too specific, stating that the penetration of microbes always manifests clinically, which is not always the case. D: Incorrect because there is a correct answer, which is B, as explained above.

Question 4 of 9

In order to accurately identify etiology of peptic ulcer disease, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis was performed on gastric biopsy specimen taken from 47-year-old patient. Eventually, the test result was positive for H. pylori. Which of the following was most likely detected in PCR analysis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial DNA. PCR analysis detects specific DNA sequences, so a positive result for H. pylori indicates the presence of the bacterial DNA in the gastric biopsy specimen. This method identifies the genetic material of the bacterium, not the bacterium itself (choice C) or its toxins (choice B). Additionally, PCR does not directly detect bacterial enzymes (choice D) but rather focuses on genetic material for accurate identification. Therefore, in this case, the detection of H. pylori in the PCR analysis points to the presence of bacterial DNA, confirming the etiology of peptic ulcer disease.

Question 5 of 9

A patient has wound abscess. Bacteriological examination of the wound content revealed a gram- negative bacillus which forms semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance on the beef-extract agar. Culture has a specific odor of violets or jasmine. What type of pathogen was isolated from the patient's wound?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative bacillus indicates P. aeruginosa, known for causing wound infections. Step 2: Semi-transparent mucous colonies of blue-green color with a pearlescent appearance are characteristic of P. aeruginosa. Step 3: Specific odor of violets or jasmine is a unique feature of P. aeruginosa. Therefore, the correct answer is A: P. aeruginosa. Summary: - B: P. vulgaris typically forms yellow colonies and doesn't have the characteristic odor. - C: S. aureus forms creamy white colonies, not blue-green, and has a distinct odor. - D: S. pyogenes forms grayish-white colonies and doesn't have the unique characteristics described.

Question 6 of 9

Which one of the methods is used to identify cytoplasmic inclusions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisser staining. This method is specifically used to identify cytoplasmic inclusions by staining them with a specific dye that highlights these structures. Neisser staining is designed to selectively target and visualize cytoplasmic inclusions, making it the most appropriate choice for this purpose. Option B: Clett staining, Option C: Ziehl-Nielsen staining, and Option D: Gram staining are not typically used for identifying cytoplasmic inclusions. Clett staining is not a commonly known staining method for this purpose. Ziehl-Nielsen staining is primarily used to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Gram staining is used to differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative based on cell wall characteristics. Therefore, these options are not suitable for identifying cytoplasmic inclusions.

Question 7 of 9

Chemically an antigen may be:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because antigens can be composed of lipids, proteins, or polysaccharides. Antigens are molecules that can elicit an immune response in the body. They can be diverse in their chemical composition, leading to the recognition and response by the immune system. Therefore, the correct choice is D as antigens can be any of these chemical components. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they each represent a possible chemical composition of antigens, but the flexibility of antigens to be made up of any of these components makes D the most accurate choice.

Question 8 of 9

A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced in response to an infection, indicating an active or recent infection. In the case of a rubella virus infection in a fetus, IgM antibodies can be detected in the umbilical cord blood, confirming the presence of the virus. IgA antibodies are mainly found in mucosal areas, IgG antibodies indicate past infection or immunity, and IgD antibodies play a role in B cell activation but are not typically detected in this context.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following scientists performed the first vaccination against smallpox?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jenner. Edward Jenner performed the first vaccination against smallpox in 1796 by using cowpox virus to immunize individuals. He observed that milkmaids who had contracted cowpox did not get smallpox, leading to the development of the smallpox vaccine. Pasteur is known for germ theory, Semmelweis for handwashing in healthcare, and Koch for identifying the causative agents of diseases. However, none of them performed the first smallpox vaccination like Jenner.

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