ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as pneumonia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia. 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a type of pneumonia called tuberculosis. 3. Escherichia coli is not typically associated with pneumonia. 4. "All of the above" includes both Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which are known to cause pneumonia. Therefore, D is the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoa disease was examined. Examination of the stained specimen (Romanovsky's stain) revealed some crescent bodies with pointed end, blue cytoplasm and red nucleus. What protozoan were revealed in the smears?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malarial plasmodiums. The description of crescent bodies with a pointed end, blue cytoplasm, and red nucleus corresponds to the characteristics of Plasmodium species seen in Romanovsky's stain. Plasmodium species are known to cause malaria and have distinct features like the ones described. Incorrect choices: A: Toxoplasmas - Toxoplasma gondii typically appear as tachyzoites or bradyzoites under staining, not crescent bodies. C: Dermotropic leishmania - Leishmania species appear as amastigotes in tissue smears, not crescent bodies. D: Viscerotropic leishmania - Similar to choice C, Leishmania species do not typically present as crescent bodies in stained specimens.
Question 3 of 9
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive cocci in pairs with pointed ends and capsules. What is the likely microorganism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The description of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with pointed ends and capsules matches the morphology of S. pneumoniae. This bacterium is known to cause pneumonia, especially in individuals with underlying conditions like COPD. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears in clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a cocci. Hence, based on the morphology and clinical context, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the likely microorganism causing pneumonia in this patient.
Question 4 of 9
A fecal sample cultured on Endo agar revealed colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods and lactose non-fermenters. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Shigella (Choice C) because it matches the description of being Gram-negative rods and lactose non-fermenters. Shigella is a non-lactose fermenting, Gram-negative rod that typically produces colorless colonies on Endo agar. Salmonella (Choice A) and Escherichia coli (Choice B) are both lactose fermenters and would produce pink colonies on Endo agar. Proteus (Choice D) is also a lactose fermenter and would appear pink on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided, Shigella is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of producing endospores?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium belongs to the Clostridium genus, known for its ability to produce endospores. Endospores are dormant, resistant structures that help bacteria survive harsh conditions. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Escherichia coli (C), and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) do not produce endospores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacterium known for causing various infections, but it does not form endospores. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals, but it does not produce endospores. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea, but it also does not form endospores.
Question 6 of 9
A 28-year-old patient was hospitalized with preliminary diagnosis "influenza". Roseolous-petechial rash appeared on the 5th day of disease on the trunk. The temperature is 41oC. Hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of tongue, tachycardia, splenomegaly are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Epidemic typhus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. The presence of roseolous-petechial rash, high fever (41oC), hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of the tongue, tachycardia, and splenomegaly are classic signs of epidemic typhus. The rash typically appears around the 5th day of the disease. Summary: - B: Measles typically presents with a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward. It doesn't usually present with tremor of the tongue or splenomegaly. - C: Alcohol delirium is characterized by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations due to alcohol consumption. It doesn't match the symptoms described. - D: Leptospirosis presents with fever, muscle pain, and conjunctival suffusion. It doesn't typically present with the specific rash and trem
Question 7 of 9
The oldest fossils of prokaryotes go back __________ billion years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3.5 to 4.0 billion years. This range aligns with the oldest known fossils of prokaryotes found in ancient rocks. Fossils dating back to this time period provide evidence of early life forms on Earth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the established timeline based on scientific evidence and fossil records. A (4.0 to 5.0 billion years) is too early for the oldest prokaryote fossils, as it predates the formation of Earth's atmosphere suitable for life. C (2.5 to 3.0 billion years) and D (2.2 to 2.7 billion years) are too recent for the oldest prokaryote fossils, as life is believed to have originated much earlier.
Question 8 of 9
The time response measures all of the following except:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.
Question 9 of 9
Microscopy of sputum from a tuberculosis patient revealed acid-fast rods stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method. What structural feature allows this staining?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycolic acid in the cell wall. Mycolic acid is a unique component of the cell wall of Mycobacterium species, including the causative agent of tuberculosis. The Ziehl-Neelsen method uses acid-fast staining, where mycolic acid confers resistance to decolorization by acid-alcohol, causing the bacteria to retain the red stain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as capsules, flagella, and peptidoglycan layers do not directly contribute to acid-fast staining characteristic of Mycobacterium species.