Which of the following bacteria IS NOT associated with skin infections?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D (Clostridium difficile) Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is primarily associated with gastrointestinal infections, particularly antibiotic-associated colitis. 2. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are commonly associated with skin infections. 3. Staphylococcus aureus can cause impetigo, boils, and cellulitis. 4. Clostridium perfringens can cause gas gangrene. 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause hot tub folliculitis and swimmer's ear.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 4 and 250. Coli index is calculated by dividing the number of red colonies by the volume of water analyzed, which gives 2 red colonies / 500 ml = 4. Coli titer is the reciprocal of the coli index, so it is 1 / 4 = 250. This indicates the concentration of coliform bacteria in the water sample. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation steps for determining the coli index and coli titer. B has the correct coli index but incorrect coli titer. C and D have the values reversed, leading to incorrect results.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, a highly infectious bacterium. 2. Francisella tularensis is the only pathogen specifically known to cause tularemia. 3. The other choices (Bordetella pertussis, Brucella suis, Legionella sp.) are not associated with tularemia. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A - Francisella tularensis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoa that causes the sexually transmitted infection trichomoniasis. The presence of an undulating membrane in vaginal discharge samples is characteristic of Trichomonas vaginalis. Giardia lamblia causes gastrointestinal illness, not vaginal infections. Trypanosoma brucei causes African sleeping sickness transmitted by tsetse flies. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis transmitted by sandflies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Streptococcus mutans is known for its ability to produce lactic acid, which contributes to the demineralization of tooth enamel, leading to dental caries. Step 2: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common respiratory pathogen and not directly associated with dental caries. Step 3: Bacillus cereus is a foodborne pathogen and not typically found in the oral cavity or associated with dental caries. Step 4: Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, a neurological condition, and is not involved in the formation of dental caries. Summary: Choice A is correct as Streptococcus mutans is specifically linked to dental caries due to its acidogenic and aciduric properties. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not associated with dental caries.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining method. The rationale is as follows: 1. Gentian violet is a primary stain used in the Gram staining procedure to stain the bacterial cells. 2. Lugol's solution is a mordant that helps to fix the crystal violet stain in Gram-positive bacteria. 3. 95% alcohol is used as a decolorizing agent in the Gram staining process to remove the stain from Gram-negative bacteria. 4. Watermagenta is not a standard reagent in the Gram staining method. Therefore, based on the reagents mentioned, the staining method applied in this case is the Gram staining method. Other choices are incorrect: B: Ziehl-Nielsen's - This staining method is used for acid-fast staining, not for lobar pneumonia. C: Romanovsky - This staining method is used for blood smears, not for bacterial staining in pneumonia. D: Neisser - This staining method is not commonly used in routine bacterial staining procedures.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethambutol. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, affecting the visual nerve. It is a well-documented side effect of this drug. Isoniazid (Choice A) is associated with peripheral neuropathy, not optic neuritis. Kanamycin (Choice C) is known for its side effects on the inner ear, causing hearing loss. Rifampicin (Choice D) is not typically associated with optic neuritis but can cause other adverse effects like hepatitis. By process of elimination and knowledge of drug side effects, Ethambutol is the most likely culprit.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli typically produces red colonies on Endo agar due to its ability to ferment lactose. This results in the production of acid, causing the colonies to appear red. Salmonella and Shigella are non-lactose fermenters, so they would appear colorless or transparent on Endo agar. Proteus vulgaris is not commonly associated with red colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristic lactose fermentation pattern, E. coli is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.