Which of the following bacteria IS NOT associated with skin infections?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D (Clostridium difficile) Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is primarily associated with gastrointestinal infections, particularly antibiotic-associated colitis. 2. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are commonly associated with skin infections. 3. Staphylococcus aureus can cause impetigo, boils, and cellulitis. 4. Clostridium perfringens can cause gas gangrene. 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause hot tub folliculitis and swimmer's ear.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae are all common causes of bacterial meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is often associated with outbreaks in community settings. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults. Haemophilus influenzae used to be a common cause in children before the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Therefore, since all three bacteria are known to cause bacterial meningitis, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each bacteria individually can cause bacterial meningitis, making "All of the above" the correct comprehensive answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 4 and 250. Coli index is calculated by dividing the number of red colonies by the volume of water analyzed, which gives 2 red colonies / 500 ml = 4. Coli titer is the reciprocal of the coli index, so it is 1 / 4 = 250. This indicates the concentration of coliform bacteria in the water sample. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation steps for determining the coli index and coli titer. B has the correct coli index but incorrect coli titer. C and D have the values reversed, leading to incorrect results.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: vectors. Vectors are animals that transmit infectious diseases from one host to another, typically through biting or contact. They do not cause the disease themselves but serve as intermediaries. Pathogens (B) are the microorganisms that cause diseases. Carriers (C) are individuals who harbor a pathogen without showing symptoms. Parasites (D) are organisms that live on or inside another organism and may or may not transmit diseases. Therefore, the term "vectors" specifically refers to animals that transmit infectious diseases, making it the correct choice in this context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Up to 3 months. Hepatitis B has an average incubation period of 60-90 days, which aligns with the timeframe of up to 3 months. This period refers to the time between exposure to the virus and the onset of symptoms. One week to 10 days (choice A) is too short for hepatitis B, as it typically takes longer to manifest. One month to 45 days (choice B) is also shorter than the average incubation period for hepatitis B. Up to 6 months (choice D) is too long for hepatitis B, as the virus typically shows symptoms within 3 months.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is specifically designed to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It utilizes a carbol fuchsin dye that binds to the high lipid content in the cell wall of acid-fast bacteria, making them appear red under a microscope. This staining method is crucial for the diagnosis of tuberculosis and leprosy. Gram-positive bacteria (Choice A) are not detected by this stain since they have a different cell wall structure. Capsulated bacteria (Choice C) and fungal spores (Choice D) also have distinct characteristics that are not targeted by the Ziehl-Neelsen stain.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viruses have the ability to infect all organisms, including plants, bacteria, animals, and even fungi. Viruses are non-living entities that require a host cell to replicate and spread. They can infect a wide range of organisms by attaching to specific receptors on the host cell's surface. Therefore, the correct answer is D as viruses have the capability to infect all living organisms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because viruses can infect not only plants, bacteria, and animals but also other organisms, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.