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free microbiology test bank questions pdf Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for causing the disease known as whooping cough?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella pertussis. This bacterium is known for causing whooping cough due to its ability to produce toxins that damage the respiratory tract, leading to severe coughing fits. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Haemophilus influenzae can cause respiratory infections but not whooping cough, and Staphylococcus aureus is more commonly associated with skin infections. Therefore, A is the correct choice based on its specific association with the disease in question.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with food poisoning caused by improperly canned foods?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium is associated with food poisoning from improperly canned foods due to its ability to produce botulinum toxin, a potent neurotoxin that causes botulism. Improper canning allows spores of Clostridium botulinum to survive and germinate, producing the toxin in anaerobic conditions. The other choices are incorrect because Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Vibrio cholerae are not typically associated with food poisoning from improperly canned foods. Escherichia coli and Salmonella are more commonly linked to contaminated water or undercooked food, while Vibrio cholerae causes cholera primarily through contaminated water sources.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following viral infections can result in chronic carrier state.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of these. HBV, HCV, and HDV can all lead to chronic carrier states due to their ability to establish persistent infections in the liver. HBV can result in chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and even liver cancer. HCV can also lead to chronic hepatitis and liver damage. HDV is a defective virus that requires HBV for replication and can worsen the outcome of HBV infection, potentially leading to chronic liver disease. Therefore, all three viruses have the potential to cause chronic carrier states.
Question 4 of 9
A patient complains of frequent bowel movements and stool with blood admixtures ("raspberry jelly" stool). Microscopic examination revealed large mononuclear cells with absorbed red blood cells. What protozoon is this morphological structure typical for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoon is responsible for causing amoebic dysentery, which presents with bloody diarrhea. The "raspberry jelly" appearance of stool is due to the presence of mucosal lining and blood. The large mononuclear cells with absorbed red blood cells are characteristic of the histopathology of Entamoeba histolytica infection. Giardia lamblia (B) causes watery diarrhea, not bloody stools. Campylobacter jejuni (C) is a bacterial pathogen associated with gastroenteritis, but does not typically cause bloody diarrhea. Toxoplasma gondii (D) causes toxoplasmosis, a systemic infection with symptoms such as fever and lymphadenopathy, but not bloody diarrhea.
Question 5 of 9
In order to prevent wound infection associated with surgical procedures a patient was given a synthetic antiprotozoan drug with a high activity against Helicobacter pylori. Specify this drug:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is a synthetic antiprotozoan drug with high activity against Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium that can cause wound infections. Metronidazole specifically targets anaerobic bacteria like H. pylori, making it effective in preventing wound infections. Incorrect choices: B: Doxycycline hydrochloride - Doxycycline is primarily used for bacterial infections, not protozoan infections like H. pylori. C: Chingamin - Chingamin is not a commonly used drug for treating H. pylori infections or preventing wound infections. D: Acyclovir - Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes infections, not bacterial or protozoan infections like H. pylori.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is known for producing a biofilm on medical devices?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This bacterium is known for producing biofilms on medical devices due to its ability to adhere and form a slimy layer that protects it from antibiotics and the host immune system. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections. Clostridium tetani (A) causes tetanus, not known for biofilm production on medical devices. Salmonella enterica (C) causes foodborne illnesses, not typically associated with medical device biofilms. Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a common pathogen in healthcare settings but is not specifically known for biofilm production on medical devices.
Question 7 of 9
The typical site for replication of DNA viruses is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nucleus. DNA viruses replicate in the host cell's nucleus because they require access to the host cell's DNA replication machinery. The nucleus contains the necessary enzymes and factors for DNA replication to occur accurately. The DNA viruses need to utilize these host cell components to replicate their own genetic material. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Cytoplasm - Cytoplasm lacks the necessary enzymes and machinery for accurate DNA replication. C: Endoplasmic Reticulum - ER is involved in protein synthesis and processing, not DNA replication. D: Golgi Apparatus - Golgi apparatus is responsible for processing and packaging proteins, not DNA replication.
Question 8 of 9
Urine examination of a patient with acute cystitis revealed leukocytes and a lot of gram-negative bacilli. Inoculation resulted in growth of colonies of mucous nature that formed green soluble pigment. What microorganism is the most probable cause of the disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Presence of gram-negative bacilli suggests Enterobacteriaceae family, which includes E. coli. 2. Green soluble pigment indicates pyocyanin production, characteristic of E. coli. 3. E. coli is the most common cause of acute cystitis due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. Summary: A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not typically associated with acute cystitis and does not produce mucous colonies. B: Klebsiella pneumoniae may cause UTIs, but does not produce green pigment and is less common than E. coli. D: Salmonella enteritidis is associated with gastrointestinal infections, not cystitis.
Question 9 of 9
A patient suffering form tuberculosis was treated with rifampicin, which caused drug resistance of tuberculosis mycobacteria. In order to reduce mycobacteria resistance, rifampicin should be combined with the following drug:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. When rifampicin is used alone, there is a risk of developing resistance. Isoniazid is commonly used in combination with rifampicin to prevent resistance by targeting different mechanisms in the bacteria. Isoniazid works by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis, while rifampicin targets RNA polymerase. This combination therapy is known as the first-line treatment for tuberculosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have the same mechanism of action as isoniazid and would not be effective in preventing rifampicin resistance.