Which of the following bacteria is known for causing dental caries (cavities)?

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microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is known for causing dental caries (cavities)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Streptococcus mutans is known for its ability to produce acids that contribute to the demineralization of tooth enamel, leading to dental caries. Step 2: Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of respiratory infections, not dental caries. Step 3: Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a serious bacterial infection, not dental caries. Step 4: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, a severe form of food poisoning, not dental caries. Summary: Streptococcus mutans is the correct answer as it is specifically associated with causing dental caries, while the other choices are linked to different diseases.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with a sore throat and fever had a throat smear stained with Gram's method, revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is known to cause sore throat and fever, commonly referred to as strep throat. Gram's stain showing Gram-positive cocci in chains is characteristic of Streptococcus species. Streptococcus pyogenes is a beta-hemolytic bacterium that forms chains and is a common cause of bacterial pharyngitis. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci that forms clusters, not chains. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is not associated with sore throat. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is a Gram-positive cocci that can cause infections but is not typically associated with sore throat.

Question 3 of 9

A wound culture revealed Gram-negative rods that are lactose non-fermenters. The bacteria were isolated from a patient with a deep tissue infection. What is the most likely microorganism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is a lactose non-fermenter commonly associated with deep tissue infections. It is an opportunistic pathogen known for its ability to cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. P. aeruginosa is often resistant to multiple antibiotics and can form biofilms, making it difficult to treat. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose and is commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract. It is not typically associated with deep tissue infections. C: Salmonella typhi is a Gram-negative rod that causes typhoid fever, primarily affecting the gastrointestinal system, not deep tissue infections. D: Shigella dysenteriae is a Gram-negative rod that causes bacillary dysentery, which primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract and does not typically cause deep tissue infections.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following statements is NOT true about influenza viruses?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because there is specific prophylaxis available for influenza, such as the flu vaccine. Choice A is incorrect as influenza viruses are not spherical, they are typically pleomorphic. Choice B is incorrect because hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are indeed antigenically variable, contributing to the need for annual flu vaccines. Choice C is incorrect as the susceptibility of the population to influenza viruses can vary depending on factors such as immunity and vaccination status.

Question 5 of 9

Which bacteria is responsible for causing cholera?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by this specific bacterium due to its production of cholera toxin, leading to severe watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, Salmonella enterica causes salmonellosis, and Clostridium perfringens causes food poisoning, none of which present with the characteristic symptoms of cholera.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produces a toxin that causes botulism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. Clostridium botulinum produces the botulinum toxin, which causes botulism. This bacteria thrives in anaerobic environments and can contaminate improperly canned foods. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not botulism. Staphylococcus aureus produces enterotoxins causing food poisoning, not botulism. Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning through various toxins, but not botulism. Therefore, the correct choice is Clostridium botulinum as it specifically produces the botulinum toxin responsible for botulism.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following bacteria should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Salmonella. This bacterium should be handled in a Biosafety Level 2 facility due to its potential to cause disease in humans. Salmonella is a pathogenic bacterium that can cause foodborne illnesses and infections. Handling it in a Biosafety Level 2 facility ensures proper containment and protection of personnel. A: Micrococcus luteus and B: Bacillus subtilis are common environmental bacteria that do not pose significant risks to human health, so they can be safely handled in lower biosafety levels. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin commensal bacterium that is generally not considered highly pathogenic, so it does not require Biosafety Level 2 containment.

Question 8 of 9

Examination of the duodenal contents revealed some pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei and four pairs of flagella. The organisms had also two axostyles between the nuclei and a ventral adhesive disc. What protozoan representative was found in the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Pear-shaped protozoa with two nuclei, four pairs of flagella, two axostyles, and a ventral adhesive disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. Step 2: Giardia lamblia is commonly found in the duodenum and causes giardiasis. Step 3: Lamblia is the correct answer as it specifically matches all the described characteristics. Summary: B, Toxoplasma, is incorrect as it does not match the described features. C, Leishmania, does not have the specific characteristics mentioned. D, Intestinal trichomonad, does not match the detailed descriptions given.

Question 9 of 9

A 25-year-old patient was delivered to an infectious diseases unit on the 3rd day of illness with complaints of headache, pain in lumbar spine and gastrocnemius muscles, high fever, chill. Objectively: condition of moderate severity. Scleras are icteric. Pharynx is hyperemic. Tongue is dry with dry brown coating. Abdomen is distended. Liver is enlarged by 2 cm. Spleen is not enlarged. Palpation of muscles, especially gastrocnemius muscles, is painful. Urine is dark in color. Stool is normal in color. The most likely diagnosis is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis is Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis presents with headache, fever, muscle pain, jaundice, and kidney involvement. The patient's symptoms of headache, lumbar and muscle pain, high fever, icteric scleras, and dark urine are classic for Leptospirosis. The enlarged liver could be due to liver involvement in the disease. The absence of splenic enlargement and normal stool color rule out malaria. Infectious mononucleosis typically presents with sore throat and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case. Viral hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but the presence of muscle pain and dark urine is more indicative of Leptospirosis. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and clinical findings, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.

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