ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with the disease known as whooping cough?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 1. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough. 2. It secretes toxins that damage the respiratory tract. 3. Symptoms include severe coughing fits and the characteristic "whoop" sound. 4. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not whooping cough. 5. Haemophilus influenzae causes various infections, not whooping cough. 6. Staphylococcus aureus causes skin infections, not whooping cough.
Question 2 of 9
The number of new cases of a disease over a certain period of time compared with the general healthy population is referred to as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: incidence. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease occurring within a specific time period in relation to the healthy population. It helps in understanding the risk of developing the disease. Prevalence (B) is the total number of existing cases at a given point in time. Virulence (C) is the severity of the disease once contracted. Mortality (D) refers to the number of deaths due to the disease, not the new cases. Therefore, the correct term for new cases is incidence.
Question 3 of 9
Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Lamblia): 1. Pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a suctorial disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. 2. The presence of two supporting filaments between the nuclei is a unique feature of Giardia lamblia. 3. Giardia lamblia is known to infect the duodenum and cause symptoms such as diarrhea and abdominal pain. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Toxoplasma - Toxoplasma gondii is not characterized by four pairs of flagella or supporting filaments in the nuclei. C: Leishmania - Leishmania species do not typically have the described morphology or location in the duodenum. D: Intestinal trichomonad - Intestinal trichomonads do not exhibit the specific features mentioned in the question, such as twin nuclei and supporting filaments.
Question 4 of 9
Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.
Question 5 of 9
Which one of the following statements about Rickettsiae is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular bacteria, hence they do not form spores, capsules, or flagella. 2. They have a slim glycocalyx layer, aiding in attachment to host cells. 3. Bipolar fimbriae are structures that help in adhesion to host cells. Therefore, all statements (A, B, and C) are true for Rickettsiae, making option D the correct answer. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of Rickettsiae.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally inhabit specific areas of the body. Blood is considered a sterile environment in healthy individuals, meaning it does not harbor any microorganisms under normal circumstances. In contrast, the intestine, skin, and vagina all have normal flora as they provide suitable environments for various microbial species to thrive. The presence of normal flora in these sites helps maintain a balance and protect against pathogenic invaders. Blood, being a vital and sterile fluid, is not meant to have any resident microbial populations.
Question 7 of 9
Many peptic ulcers are due to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is the main cause of peptic ulcers by damaging the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum. It secretes enzymes that weaken the mucosal barrier, allowing stomach acid to cause damage. Salmonella typhi (A) causes typhoid fever, not peptic ulcers. Shigella boydii (C) causes dysentery, not peptic ulcers. Salmonella enterica (D) causes food poisoning, not peptic ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is B based on its direct association with peptic ulcer formation.
Question 8 of 9
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive diplococci with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by Gram-positive diplococci with a capsule. The presence of a capsule helps the bacterium evade the immune system and contributes to its virulence. Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not typically have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is associated with meningitis, not pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a Gram-positive bacterium, but it does not typically present as diplococci with a capsule in a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient.
Question 9 of 9
A wound infection culture revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is characterized by Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing wound infections due to its ability to produce toxins and enzymes. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative, making it less likely to cause infections. Streptococcus pyogenes (C) is catalase-negative and typically causes streptococcal infections, not wound infections. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and typically associated with urinary tract infections. Thus, Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely causative agent based on the given characteristics.