ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with stomach ulcers?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is associated with stomach ulcers as it can survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and produce substances that weaken the stomach lining. Escherichia coli (A) is associated with foodborne illnesses, not ulcers. Bacillus cereus (C) causes food poisoning. Clostridium difficile (D) is associated with antibiotic-associated colitis, not ulcers. Therefore, Helicobacter pylori is the correct answer based on its specific association with stomach ulcers.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following organisms produces aflatoxin, a carcinogenic substance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Aspergillus flavus is a fungus known to produce aflatoxin. 2. Aflatoxin is a potent carcinogen found in contaminated food. 3. Candida albicans is a yeast species not associated with aflatoxin production. 4. Claviceps purpurea is a fungus that produces ergot alkaloids, not aflatoxin. 5. Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium known for causing food poisoning, not aflatoxin production. Summary: Aspergillus flavus is the correct answer as it is the organism known to produce aflatoxin, a carcinogenic substance. Other choices are incorrect as they are not associated with aflatoxin production.
Question 3 of 9
For family Togaviridae is true that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Togaviridae is a family of viruses known to have non-segmented (+)ssRNA as their genetic material. Step 2: The positive sense RNA means that the viral RNA can be directly translated into proteins by host machinery. Step 3: This RNA genome acts as mRNA, allowing for immediate translation of viral proteins. Step 4: Therefore, choice C is correct as it accurately describes the genetic nature of Togaviridae. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses do not have helical symmetry. - Choice B is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses do not have non-segmented (-)dsRNA. - Choice D is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses are enveloped viruses.
Question 4 of 9
How is viral multiplication detected in cell culture?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral multiplication in cell culture can be detected by observing a specific cytopathic effect (A) caused by viral infection in cells and by using an immunofluorescence detection method (B) to visualize viral antigens within the cells. Choice C, the characteristic type of viral colonies, is incorrect as viral multiplication is not typically detected by observing viral colonies in cell culture. Option D is the correct choice as both A and B methods are commonly used to detect viral multiplication in cell culture.
Question 5 of 9
Poxviruses are DNA viruses that replicate in the Cytoplasm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Poxviruses are indeed DNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm. This is due to their complex structure that allows them to carry out their replication process in the cytoplasm of the host cell. Other choices are incorrect because poxviruses specifically replicate in the cytoplasm and do not require the nucleus for replication, ruling out choice B. Choice C is incorrect because poxviruses consistently replicate in the cytoplasm regardless of the situation. Choice D is incorrect as the correct answer is A.
Question 6 of 9
Elementary and reticular bodies are morphological?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. Elementary bodies (EBs) and reticular bodies (RBs) are two distinct forms of Chlamydia trachomatis, a bacterium causing various infections. EBs are the infectious form, while RBs are the replicative form within host cells. Mycoplasma genitalium (choice A) lacks a cell wall and does not have these specific morphological forms. Rickettsia prowazekii (choice C) is an obligate intracellular bacterium but does not exhibit the elementary and reticular body forms characteristic of Chlamydia trachomatis. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as only Chlamydia trachomatis exhibits the elementary and reticular bodies.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has food poisoning. Laboratory analysis revealed a culture of anaerobic gram-positive spore-forming bacteria. What is the most likely kind of the isolated causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: C. perfringens. This is because Clostridium perfringens is a gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacterium commonly associated with food poisoning. It produces toxins that cause gastrointestinal symptoms. Proteus vulgaris (B) and P. mirabilis (C) are gram-negative bacteria not typically associated with food poisoning. Vibrio parahemolyticus (D) is a gram-negative bacterium causing seafood-related gastroenteritis, not spore-forming or anaerobic.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea. B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections. D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.
Question 9 of 9
An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β-lactam antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluconazole. 1. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species commonly causing candidiasis. 2. Streptomycin (B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not fungal. 3. Phthalylsulfathiazole (C) is an antibacterial agent, not antifungal. 4. Ampicillin (D) is a β-lactam antibiotic, which can actually contribute to fungal infections like candidiasis.