Which of the following bacteria can cause urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are all known to cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) in humans. E. coli is the most common cause of UTIs, accounting for about 80-85% of cases. S. enterica and P. aeruginosa are less common but can still infect the urinary tract under certain circumstances. Therefore, all three bacteria can potentially cause UTIs, making option D the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not cover the full range of bacteria known to cause UTIs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A - Clostridium tetani): 1. The patient has convulsive contractions of facial muscles, indicating tetanus. 2. Isolation of bacteria with terminal endospores that have a drumstick appearance is characteristic of Clostridium tetani. 3. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin toxin causing muscle spasms. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is Clostridium tetani (A). Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not tetanus. C: Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, not tetanus. D: Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not tetanus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dysenteric amoeba. This is because dysenteric amoebas can cause asymptomatic parasitosis, where a healthy person carries cysts that can infect others. Dysenteric amoebas are known to infect the intestines and can be transmitted through contaminated food or water. Choice B, Malarial plasmodium, causes malaria transmitted through mosquitoes. Choice C, Enteral trichomonad, causes diarrhea and is transmitted through contaminated water. Choice D, Dermatotropic leishmania, causes skin lesions and is transmitted through sandfly bites. These choices do not fit the scenario of asymptomatic parasitosis in public catering establishments.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) have fimbrial adhesins that help them bind to enterocytes in the intestines, leading to colonization and infection. This is a key virulence factor of EPEC. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: EPEC typically cause watery diarrhea in infants, not bloody diarrhea similar to shigellosis. C: EPEC are not part of the normal intestinal flora; they are pathogenic bacteria. D: EPEC are not invasive and do not typically produce enterotoxin; they primarily adhere to the intestinal epithelium.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgG. IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta due to its small size and unique structure, allowing it to provide passive immunity to the fetus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions, IgM is too large to cross the placental barrier, and IgD plays a role in B cell activation but is not involved in placental transfer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: pharmacokinetics. Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement in the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. It focuses on how the body processes a drug over time. Pharmacodynamics (A) is the study of the effects drugs have on the body. Pharmacotherapeutics (C) involves using drugs to treat diseases. Pharmacy (D) is the practice of preparing and dispensing medications. Pharmacokinetics specifically deals with drug concentrations at different body sites after administration, making it the most appropriate choice for this question.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: reemerging diseases. Group II category diseases by the NIAID are those that have reemerged or have the potential to reemerge. This classification helps prioritize research and resources. Choice A is incorrect because new foodborne pathogens fall under different categories. Choice B is incorrect as eradicated diseases are not part of the reemerging group. Choice C is incorrect because bioterrorism agents are classified separately. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the purpose of Group II category diseases.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vaginitis is a common bacterial infection in the female reproductive system. 2. Toxic shock syndrome can be caused by certain bacterial infections. 3. Endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium often due to bacterial infections. 4. Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes, commonly caused by bacteria. Summary: - Choice B: Nephritis is a kidney infection, not related to female reproductive system infections. - Choice C: Nephritis and cystitis are not specific to the female reproductive system. - Choice D: Cystitis is a bladder infection, not typically considered part of female reproductive system infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10% of the infected men have no symptoms. This is true because gonorrhea can be asymptomatic in some individuals, leading to undiagnosed cases. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness (choice A) are not typical symptoms of gonorrhea in men. Painful urination (choice B) may or may not be present. Purulent discharge (choice D) is a common symptom but not always present. Therefore, choice C is the most accurate statement regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men.