Which of the following bacteria can cause urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following bacteria can cause urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are all known to cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) in humans. E. coli is the most common cause of UTIs, accounting for about 80-85% of cases. S. enterica and P. aeruginosa are less common but can still infect the urinary tract under certain circumstances. Therefore, all three bacteria can potentially cause UTIs, making option D the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not cover the full range of bacteria known to cause UTIs.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following consists of DNA viruses?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Parvoviridae. Parvoviruses are DNA viruses, as their genetic material is composed of DNA. This distinguishes them from RNA viruses like Picornaviridae, Astroviridae, and Togaviridae. Parvoviruses replicate in the host cell nucleus, further confirming their DNA nature. Therefore, based on their DNA composition and replication process, Parvoviridae is the correct choice.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following diseases is transmitted via aerosols?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psittacosis. This disease is transmitted via aerosols containing dried bird droppings or respiratory secretions from infected birds. When these aerosols are inhaled, the bacteria causing psittacosis enter the respiratory system and infect the individual. - B: Shigellosis is transmitted through contaminated food or water, not via aerosols. - C: Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with water, soil, or food contaminated with the urine of infected animals, not via aerosols. - D: Giardiasis is transmitted through ingesting contaminated food or water, not via aerosols. Therefore, Psittacosis is the only disease in the list that is transmitted via aerosols, making it the correct answer.

Question 4 of 9

A fecal smear from a patient with chronic diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan parasite causes amoebic dysentery and is characterized by cysts with four nuclei in fecal smears. It is commonly associated with chronic diarrhea. Balantidium coli (B) presents with large ciliated trophozoites, not cysts. Giardia lamblia (C) has trophozoites with flagella and causes giardiasis, not cysts with four nuclei. Trichomonas hominis (D) typically has a pear-shaped trophozoite and is not associated with cysts with four nuclei.

Question 5 of 9

Group II category diseases as established by the NIAID include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: reemerging diseases. Group II category diseases by the NIAID are those that have reemerged or have the potential to reemerge. This classification helps prioritize research and resources. Choice A is incorrect because new foodborne pathogens fall under different categories. Choice B is incorrect as eradicated diseases are not part of the reemerging group. Choice C is incorrect because bioterrorism agents are classified separately. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the purpose of Group II category diseases.

Question 6 of 9

A 49-year-old countryman got an itching papule on the dorsum of his right hand. In the centre there is a vesicle with serosanginous exudate. Within the next 2 days the patient developed a painless edema of hand and forearm. On the 4th day the temperature rose to 38,5oC, in the right axillary region a large painful lymph node was found. One daybefore the onset of the disease the patient had examined a dead calf. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 7 of 9

What type of bacteria is responsible for causing tuberculosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis, as it has unique characteristics that allow it to infect the lungs and evade the immune system, leading to a chronic infection. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a slow-growing, acid-fast bacterium that can survive and replicate within macrophages, causing the characteristic granulomas seen in tuberculosis. Choice B, Escherichia coli, is a common gut bacterium and is not responsible for tuberculosis. Choice C, Clostridium botulinum, causes botulism, not tuberculosis. Choice D, Salmonella enterica, causes food poisoning, not tuberculosis.

Question 8 of 9

The effect of which of the following toxins DOES NOT MANIFEST with neurological symptoms:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D: Pertussis exotoxin. Pertussis toxin primarily affects the respiratory system causing whooping cough. It does not directly target the nervous system like the other toxins listed. Tetanospasmin causes muscle spasms, Diphtheria exotoxin affects the heart and nerves, and Botulinum exotoxin causes paralysis by blocking neurotransmitter release. Therefore, Pertussis exotoxin is the only toxin among the options that does not manifest with neurological symptoms.

Question 9 of 9

Which statement about the fungal mycelium is correct:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: - A: The mycelium is indeed made up of intertwined hyphae, which are the branching filaments of fungi. - B: Part of the mycelium does grow into the medium to acquire nutrients, forming the substrate mycelium. - C: Some parts of the mycelium remain above the medium to aid in reproduction and spore dispersal, forming the aerial mycelium. Therefore, all statements (A, B, and C) are correct, making choice D the correct answer. The mycelium exhibits both intertwined hyphae, substrate mycelium, and aerial mycelium to facilitate different functions.

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