ATI RN
microbiology an evolving science test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following bacteria can be transmitted via droplets in the air?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium can be transmitted via droplets in the air through coughing or sneezing. It is spread through respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) is transmitted through direct contact with respiratory secretions, not through droplets in the air. Escherichia coli (B) is commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water, not through the air. Clostridium botulinum (C) is typically transmitted through contaminated food, not via respiratory droplets. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it is the only bacterium listed that can be transmitted via droplets in the air.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with probable liver abscess was delivered to a surgical department. The patient for a long time had been on an assignment in an African country and had recurrent cases of gastrointestinal disturbance. What protozoan disease can it be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of gastrointestinal disturbance and liver abscess are indicative of an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis. The patient's travel history to an African country also increases the likelihood of contracting this disease, as it is more prevalent in tropical regions. Toxoplasmosis (A) is primarily associated with exposure to cat feces, Leishmaniasis (B) is transmitted through sandfly bites, and Malaria (C) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through mosquito bites. Therefore, these options are incorrect given the patient's presentation and travel history.
Question 3 of 9
The presence of E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: colonization. E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx indicate colonization rather than being part of the normal resident flora. Colonization refers to the presence of these bacteria on body surfaces without causing harm. They are not considered normal flora in the pharynx but rather transient or opportunistic pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because these bacteria are not part of the normal resident flora of the pharynx. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that these bacteria are both normal flora and colonization, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as there is evidence of bacterial presence, indicating colonization.
Question 4 of 9
Specify the most commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it specifies the commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization: 1.0 atm pressure, 120º C temperature, and 15-20 minutes duration. This combination ensures effective sterilization by providing the necessary heat and pressure for killing microorganisms. Rationale: 1. Pressure of 1.0 atm: Standard atmospheric pressure commonly used in autoclaving. 2. Temperature of 120º C: Optimal temperature for sterilization without causing damage to heat-sensitive materials. 3. Duration of 15-20 minutes: Time required for heat and pressure to penetrate and kill microorganisms effectively. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Incorrect temperature and duration, too high and long, may damage materials. C: Incorrect pressure and temperature, higher pressure and temperature not commonly used. D: Incorrect temperature, too high, can damage materials, and duration is longer than necessary.
Question 5 of 9
Microscopic analysis of dental plaque revealed flagellated protozoa without a cyst stage. What microorganism is likely present?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas tenax. Trichomonas tenax is a flagellated protozoan commonly found in the oral cavity and does not have a cyst stage. This organism typically inhabits the gingival crevices and can be identified in dental plaque samples. Entamoeba gingivalis (B) is an amoeba and does not have flagella. Balantidium coli (C) is a ciliated protozoan that infects the intestines, not the oral cavity. Giardia lamblia (D) is a flagellated protozoan that infects the intestines and has a distinct cyst stage. Therefore, the presence of flagellated protozoa without a cyst stage in dental plaque indicates Trichomonas tenax is likely present.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following drugs is not used to treat influenza
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes infections, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are all antiviral drugs commonly used to treat influenza. Acyclovir works by inhibiting the replication of herpes viruses, so it is not effective against the influenza virus. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
Question 7 of 9
A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his gums. What drug will be the most effective if it is suspected that a causative agent is an anaerobe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Anaerobic bacteria are sensitive to metronidazole due to its mechanism of action targeting their DNA. Metronidazole is often the drug of choice for treating infections caused by anaerobic bacteria. Gentamicin, Oxacillin, and Co-trimoxazole are not effective against anaerobes. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside mostly used for aerobic bacteria, Oxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against gram-positive bacteria, and Co-trimoxazole is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim mainly used for urinary tract infections and some respiratory infections.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following media is the most selective for Vibrio cholerae?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: TCBS. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar is the most selective for Vibrio cholerae due to its high salt content, bile salts, and sucrose. Vibrio cholerae can grow well in alkaline conditions, which are provided by TCBS agar. MacConkey's agar (A) is selective for gram-negative bacteria, but not specifically for Vibrio cholerae. Chocolate agar (B) is a non-selective medium suitable for fastidious organisms. SS agar (C) is selective for Salmonella and Shigella species, not Vibrio cholerae.
Question 9 of 9
A patient had been provisionally diagnosed with syphilis. A laboratory assistant took the blood serum for an immunologic test based on the detection of antibodies preventing the movement of treponemas and causing their death. What reaction was used for the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilization. This technique is called the Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test, used to diagnose syphilis. The rationale is as follows: 1. TPI test detects antibodies that prevent the movement of treponemas, causing their death. 2. By immobilizing the treponemas, it indicates the presence of specific antibodies against syphilis. 3. This test is highly specific for syphilis diagnosis as it directly targets the causative agent. Other choices are incorrect: B: Complement binding - Not specific to syphilis, more commonly used for other diseases. C: Agglutination - Detects clumping of particles, not specific to treponemas or syphilis. D: Precipitation - Involves the formation of a solid, not directly related to treponema movement or death.