Which of the following bacteria are unable to synthesize ATP?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chlamydia. Chlamydia lacks the essential enzymes for ATP synthesis and relies on host cell ATP. Enterococci, Rickettsia, and Staphylococci possess the necessary enzymes for ATP synthesis through cellular respiration. Chlamydia's inability to synthesize ATP makes it dependent on the host cell for energy production, distinguishing it from the other bacteria listed.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Transcription. Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template. During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to the DNA and produces a complementary RNA strand. This process is essential for gene expression. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Transposition involves the movement of genetic elements within a genome, not the production of RNA from DNA. B: Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA, not the production of RNA from DNA. D: RNA splicing is the process of removing introns and joining exons in pre-mRNA to produce mature mRNA, not the initial production of RNA from DNA.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Rotaviruses are not a major cause of meningitis; they primarily cause gastroenteritis. This is because Rotaviruses infect the gastrointestinal tract, not the central nervous system. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific antiviral therapy for Rotaviruses. Choice B is correct as Rotaviruses are indeed widespread globally. Choice D is correct as Rotaviruses are shed in large amounts in feces, contributing to their ability to spread easily.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mantoux test. The Mantoux test is used to screen for tuberculosis by injecting PPD intradermally. The presence of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction indicates prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The Schick test (B) is used to test for immunity to diphtheria, while the Dick test (C) is used to test for immunity to scarlet fever. Therefore, the correct use of PPD is in the Mantoux test for tuberculosis screening.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Co-trimoxazole. This drug combination is the first-line treatment for toxoplasmosis due to its efficacy against Toxoplasma gondii. Co-trimoxazole consists of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work synergistically to inhibit bacterial and protozoal folate synthesis, effectively treating toxoplasmosis. B: Itraconazole is an antifungal medication and not effective against toxoplasmosis. C: Mebendazole is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not toxoplasmosis. D: Azidothimidine, also known as AZT, is used for treating HIV, not toxoplasmosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on cell wall structure. It classifies bacteria into Gram-positive (purple) and Gram-negative (pink) based on the presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. This method helps in identifying the bacterial species and determining appropriate treatment. Option A (Cell shape) is incorrect because the Gram stain focuses on cell wall composition, not cell shape. Option C (Flagella composition) is incorrect as the Gram stain does not assess flagella. Option D (Nutrient requirements) is incorrect as it does not relate to the purpose of the Gram stain.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium, which matches the description provided. It is motile and peritrichous (having flagella all over the surface) without a capsule. This bacterium is known to cause gas gangrene due to its ability to produce toxins that destroy tissue. Choice A is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is Gram-positive, not Gram-negative, and it does not have a capsule. Choice B is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is not motile and does not have flagella all over its surface. Choice D is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is Gram-positive, not Gram-negative, and it is motile without a capsule.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic clostridial wound infection. The symptoms and signs described (bursting pain, weakness, drowsiness, fever, swollen skin, gas crepitation, foul-smelling dark-gray discharge) are classic for gas gangrene, caused by Clostridium perfringens. Gas gangrene is an anaerobic infection that thrives in devitalized tissue, such as postoperative wounds. The gas crepitation is due to gas production by the bacteria. Abscess (B) typically presents with localized swelling and fluctuance, not gas crepitation. Postoperative wound infection (C) may present with redness, warmth, and increased wound discharge but not the specific features mentioned. Erysipelas (D) is a superficial bacterial skin infection, typically caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, presenting with well-defined raised borders and redness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Fluconazole): Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections caused by Candida albicans. It targets the fungal cell membrane, disrupting its structure and function. This makes it an effective treatment for oral thrush, which is caused by Candida overgrowth in the oral mucosa. The continuous use of antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of microorganisms in the body, leading to fungal overgrowth. Fluconazole specifically targets the yeast fungi without affecting bacteria, making it the appropriate choice for this complication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Biseptol - Biseptol is an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi like Candida albicans. C: Tetracycline - Tetracycline is also an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi. D: Furazolidone - Furazolidone is an antibiotic primarily used for treating bacterial infections, not fungal infections like oral thrush caused by Candida