Which of the following bacteria are known for causing urinary tract infections?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above) because all three bacteria (Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus) are known to cause urinary tract infections. E. coli is the most common causative agent of UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urethra. P. aeruginosa can cause UTIs in hospitalized patients with catheters. S. aureus is less common but can lead to UTIs, especially in individuals with underlying health conditions. Therefore, all three bacteria are potential pathogens for UTIs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria can individually cause UTIs, making the correct answer D.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: virulence. Virulence refers to the degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism possesses. This term specifically describes the ability of a microorganism to cause disease in a host. It is a crucial factor in understanding the pathogenicity of different microorganisms. Choice B: strength is incorrect because it does not specifically relate to the disease-causing potential of a microorganism. Choice C: resistance refers to the ability of an organism to withstand the effects of a particular agent, such as a drug or environmental factor. Choice D: competence is not directly related to the disease-causing ability of a microorganism, but rather refers to the ability of an organism to perform a specific function effectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presence of acid-fast bacilli stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method indicates a mycobacterial infection. Among the choices, tuberculosis is the most common mycobacterial infection affecting the lungs, presenting with acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, but it typically does not show up in sputum smears. Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which is not acid-fast. Pneumonia is a general term for lung inflammation caused by various pathogens, not specifically mycobacteria. Therefore, the correct diagnosis is tuberculosis based on the microscopy findings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is known to inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in alcohol metabolism. 2. Inhibition of this enzyme leads to accumulation of acetaldehyde, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 3. This reaction is known as the disulfiram-like reaction. 4. Reserpine, Clonidine, and Diazepam do not have this specific mechanism of action. Summary: - Option A (Metronidazole) is correct due to its inhibition of alcohol metabolism. - Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not exhibit this interaction with alcohol metabolism.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Disinfection is the process of destroying the vegetative forms of microorganisms, but their spores may survive. This is why choice C is correct. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Disinfection does not necessarily target spore forms exclusively. B: While disinfection targets vegetative forms, it does not always eliminate spore forms. D: Disinfection is not primarily used for determining the effect of physical agents on microorganisms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the complement fixation test is a serological test that detects the presence of specific antibodies or antigens in a patient's serum. It works by measuring the ability of antibodies to fix complement proteins. Choice A is incorrect because the complement fixation test typically involves several steps, not necessarily three. Choice C is incorrect as standardized complement proteins are commonly used in this test. Choice D is incorrect because sheep red blood cells are not essential for performing the complement fixation test.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prokaryotic. Bacteria are prokaryotic cells because they lack a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. They have a simple cell structure with genetic material floating freely in the cytoplasm. Choice A (eukaryotic) is incorrect because eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Choice C (diploid) is incorrect as bacteria do not have a defined ploidy level like diploid organisms do. Choice D (haploid) is also incorrect as bacteria do not have a true haploid or diploid state due to their lack of a defined nucleus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polio viruses are primarily found in the gastrointestinal tract and respiratory secretions. Feces, nasopharyngeal swabs, and cerebrospinal fluid are the most suitable materials for isolating polio viruses due to their presence in these body fluids. Feces contain the virus shed from the intestines, nasopharyngeal swabs collect respiratory secretions where the virus may be present, and cerebrospinal fluid is important for detecting the virus in cases of neurological complications. Choices A and B include irrelevant body fluids that are not typically associated with polio virus transmission. Option C is too limited as the virus can also be present in respiratory secretions and cerebrospinal fluid, not just feces.