Which of the following bacteria are capable of surviving in high-salinity environments?

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microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following bacteria are capable of surviving in high-salinity environments?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high-salinity environments due to their ability to tolerate high salt concentrations. They have adapted mechanisms to maintain osmotic balance and survive in such extreme conditions. Thermophiles (B) thrive in high-temperature environments, not high-salinity. Acidophiles (C) prefer acidic conditions, not high-salinity. Mesophiles (D) grow optimally at moderate temperatures and are not specifically adapted to high-salinity environments.

Question 2 of 9

A 35-year-old man was diagnosed with cutaneous leishmaniasis. What is the vector of the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sandfly. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of infected sandflies. These tiny insects are known vectors for Leishmania parasites. Sandflies are active during dusk and night, feeding on blood from mammals, including humans. Tick (B), mosquito (C), and tsetse fly (D) are not vectors for Leishmania parasites. Ticks transmit diseases like Lyme disease, mosquitoes transmit diseases like malaria, and tsetse flies transmit African trypanosomiasis. Therefore, the correct vector for cutaneous leishmaniasis is the sandfly due to its specific role in transmitting the Leishmania parasite.

Question 3 of 9

The anticodons are located in

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: tRNA. Anticodons are sequences of nucleotides found on tRNA molecules that complement the codons on mRNA during translation. tRNA molecules carry specific amino acids to the ribosome based on the codon-anticodon pairing. Option B, rRNA, forms the structure of the ribosome and is not directly involved in anticodon recognition. Option C, mRNA, contains codons but not anticodons. Option D, ribosomes, are the site of protein synthesis but do not contain the anticodons themselves.

Question 4 of 9

A microscope that provides a three-dimensional image of a specimen is a

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: scanning electron microscope. A scanning electron microscope provides a three-dimensional image of a specimen by scanning a focused electron beam across the surface of the specimen, detecting the electrons that are emitted from the surface, and creating a detailed image. This is achieved through the detection of secondary electrons, backscattered electrons, and X-rays emitted from the specimen surface. A dark-field microscope (choice A) utilizes oblique lighting to enhance contrast and is not specifically designed to provide a 3D image. A transmission electron microscope (choice B) uses a beam of electrons transmitted through a specimen to create a 2D image at high magnification. A bright-field microscope (choice C) is a basic microscope that illuminates a specimen with uniform light and does not provide a 3D image like a scanning electron microscope does.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presented with fever, malaise, and an ulcerated lesion. A Gram stain of the lesion revealed large, Gram-positive rods. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.

Question 6 of 9

All of the following infections may recur during pregnancy except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: polyomavirus infections. Polyomavirus infections do not typically recur during pregnancy because once the virus infects the body, it remains latent without causing recurrent infections. In contrast, choices A, B, and C can recur during pregnancy due to their ability to reactivate from latency or reinfect the host. Epstein-Barr virus infections (choice A) can lead to infectious mononucleosis, herpes simplex virus infections (choice B) can cause recurrent genital or oral herpes outbreaks, and streptococcal infections (choice C) can result in recurrent throat or skin infections.

Question 7 of 9

A smear from frothy and purulent vaginal discharges of a 42 y.o. woman was stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method. Its analysis revealed some microorganisms of flagellates class. What microorganism were the most probably revealed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection commonly found in vaginal discharges. In this case, the presence of flagellates in the vaginal discharge aligns with the characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis. Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, transmitted by sandflies. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness through the tsetse fly bite. Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine. Therefore, the correct choice is A due to the correlation between the flagellates found in the vaginal discharge and the characteristics of Trichomonas vaginalis.

Question 8 of 9

A patient has severe catarrhal symptoms. Material growth on Bordet-Gengou agar showed mercury- drop like colonies. Examination of the blood smears revealed some small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized 1-3 microns. What microorganisms were isolated?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella. The presence of mercury-drop like colonies on Bordet-Gengou agar indicates Bordetella pertussis. The small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized 1-3 microns are characteristic of Bordetella species. Catarrhal symptoms are typical of pertussis caused by Bordetella pertussis. Summary of other choices: B: Corynebacteria do not typically exhibit mercury-drop like colonies or small ovoid shapes. C: Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacilli and do not grow on Bordet-Gengou agar. D: Meningococcus is a gram-negative diplococcus and does not match the description provided.

Question 9 of 9

Measures that can be taken to prevent bacterial vaginitis include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because bacterial vaginitis is often caused by an imbalance in the vaginal flora, which can be disrupted by frequent douching (eliminating beneficial bacteria), tight clothing (restricting airflow), and non-breathable underwear. Avoiding tight pants and using cotton underwear allow for better ventilation, promoting a healthy vaginal environment. Infrequent douching helps maintain the natural balance of bacteria in the vagina. Choices A and B are incorrect because they recommend practices that can disrupt the vaginal flora and increase the risk of bacterial vaginitis. Choice C is partially correct but lacks the emphasis on avoiding frequent douching, which is crucial in preventing bacterial vaginitis.

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