Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Orthopnea is a classic symptom of congestive heart failure (CHF) due to fluid accumulation in the lungs when lying flat. Step 2: This symptom occurs because when lying down, the fluid redistributes, making it harder to breathe. Step 3: Fever (choice B) is not typically associated with CHF unless there is an underlying infection. Step 4: Weight loss (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like cancer or malnutrition, not CHF. Step 5: Calf pain (choice D) is more commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis, not CHF. Summary: Orthopnea is the best assessment finding indicating CHF, while the other choices are more likely related to different health conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because collecting urine 24-48 hrs after the client has received nonradioactive B12 is essential for the Schilling test to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption. Urine is collected to measure the excretion of radioactive B12, which helps in diagnosing pernicious anemia or malabsorption issues. Incorrect choices: B: Collecting blood samples is not necessary for the Schilling test as it primarily involves urine collection. C: Allowing oral fluid consumption is important to prevent dehydration and is not contraindicated after receiving nonradioactive B12. D: Making the client lie down in the supine position is unnecessary for the Schilling test and may not affect the test results.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because when a client's condition improves, resolved nursing diagnoses should be removed from the care plan to reflect the current status accurately. This ensures the care plan remains relevant and effective. Continuing with the existing plan (choice B) may lead to unnecessary interventions. Focusing only on unresolved issues (choice C) overlooks the importance of updating the care plan comprehensively. Delegating the task to another nurse or staff member (choice D) is not appropriate as the nurse updating the care plan should have a thorough understanding of the client's progress and needs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laryngeal cancer. Persistent hoarseness is a common symptom of laryngeal cancer due to vocal cord involvement. Laryngeal cancer causes changes in voice quality over time. Bacterial infection (A) usually presents with acute symptoms and resolves with treatment. Aphonia (B) is the complete loss of voice, not persistent hoarseness. Peritonsillar abscess (D) causes sore throat and difficulty swallowing, but not persistent hoarseness.