ATI RN
labor and delivery questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following are signs of impending labor? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Surge of energy. This is a sign of impending labor because some women experience a burst of energy as the body prepares for childbirth. Weight gain (A) is not a typical sign of impending labor, as weight gain usually occurs earlier in pregnancy. Increase in urinary frequency (C) is a common symptom throughout pregnancy and may not specifically indicate impending labor. Dyspnea (D), which is difficulty breathing, is not typically a sign of impending labor unless it is due to specific complications.
Question 2 of 5
A 35-year-old gravida 1, para 0 is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. She reports intense rectal pressure. Which stage of labor is probable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Second stage. This stage of labor is characterized by full dilation of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the baby. The intense rectal pressure reported by the patient indicates that the baby is descending through the birth canal, which is a hallmark sign of the second stage. In contrast, the first stage, latent (choice A) is characterized by early labor contractions and cervical dilation up to 6 cm. The third stage (choice C) is the delivery of the placenta, and the fourth stage (choice D) is the immediate postpartum period. The key here is recognizing the specific symptom of intense rectal pressure, which aligns with the second stage of labor.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse midwife caring for a multiparous client who is 5 cm dilated requests intermittent auscultation (IA) of the fetal heart rate. The woman’s history reveals no risk factors. How often should IA be performed in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Every 15 minutes. This frequency is recommended for a low-risk multiparous client in active labor without risk factors. Intermittent auscultation every 15 minutes allows for adequate monitoring of fetal well-being while also promoting maternal autonomy and mobility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are either too frequent or too infrequent for a low-risk client in active labor. Every 5 minutes (B) may be excessive and disrupt the labor process, every 20 minutes (C) may not provide sufficient monitoring, and every 30 minutes (D) may not detect changes in fetal status promptly.
Question 4 of 5
A 28-year-old woman without risk factors has now reached the second stage of labor. What is the optimal position for her at this point?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The optimal position for a woman in the second stage of labor is lateral recumbent. This position allows gravity to aid in the descent of the baby, reduces pressure on the vena cava, and promotes better blood flow to the uterus. It also helps prevent perineal tears and facilitates fetal rotation. A: Supine position can compress the vena cava, reducing blood flow to the uterus. C: Lithotomy position is not recommended as it can lead to increased perineal trauma. D: Squatting may not be ideal as it can be tiring for the mother and may not provide optimal support for delivery.
Question 5 of 5
A fetus is positioned in a longitudinal lie with its head in the fundus with both hips and knees flexed. Which presentation is this known as?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Complete breech. In a complete breech presentation, the fetus is positioned with its head in the fundus, hips flexed, and knees flexed. This position is unique to the complete breech presentation. A: Frank breech would have the hips flexed, but the knees extended. C: Vertex position is when the head is down towards the birth canal. D: Transverse is when the fetus is lying horizontally across the uterus. Therefore, based on the description provided in the question, the correct answer is B as it matches the specific presentation described.