Which of the following are effective strategies to become more resilient? (EXCEPT)

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because deciding that your career is not your highest priority does not necessarily contribute to building resilience. Resilience is about adapting to and bouncing back from challenges. Exercising, managing time effectively, and becoming self-aware are effective strategies for enhancing resilience. Exercise boosts physical and mental well-being, time management helps in staying organized during tough times, and self-awareness enables recognizing and managing emotions effectively. In contrast, deeming career as not a priority may lead to lack of motivation and focus, hindering resilience-building efforts.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Arrange food in a consistent pattern on the client's plate. This intervention is important for a client with vision loss because it allows them to easily locate and identify different foods on their plate. Placing food in a consistent pattern helps the client establish a mental map of where each food item is located. Thicken liquids (choice B) may not be necessary unless the client has swallowing difficulties. Providing small-handled utensils (choice C) may not be helpful if the client has difficulty identifying the food on the plate. Assigning a staff member to feed the client (choice D) may not promote independence and can be impractical in certain healthcare settings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Preoccupation with failure. High reliability organizations (HROs) prioritize a constant focus on identifying and learning from failures to prevent future errors and improve safety. This preoccupation with failure helps them to anticipate and address potential issues before they escalate. Why the other choices are incorrect: A: Flexibility - While flexibility can be a valuable trait, it is not a defining characteristic of HROs. HROs prioritize consistency and standardization to minimize errors. B: Reluctance to simplify - HROs embrace simplicity to enhance clarity and reduce confusion, rather than complicating processes. D: Deference to expertise - While expertise is important in HROs, deference to expertise alone does not guarantee high reliability. HROs value a culture of open communication and collaboration among all team members.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Encouraging open communication. This is because open communication allows all parties involved in the conflict to express their thoughts and feelings, understand each other's perspectives, and work towards a mutually acceptable solution. It promotes transparency, trust, and collaboration. Ignoring the conflict (A) can lead to unresolved issues, while assigning blame (B) can escalate tensions. Enforcing strict rules (D) may not address the underlying issues or promote understanding between conflicting parties.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total quality management. This philosophy focuses on involving all employees in improving processes and products to achieve customer satisfaction. In this scenario, the nurse is prioritizing the client's needs and preferences, which aligns with the core principles of total quality management. Choice A, continuous quality improvement, focuses on incremental improvements over time rather than immediate customer satisfaction like in this case. Choice C, Six Sigma, emphasizes reducing defects in processes, not necessarily addressing individual customer preferences. Choice D, quality management, is a broader term that encompasses various approaches to ensuring quality but does not specifically highlight customer-centric care like total quality management does.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a nurse preceptor serves as a mentor and educator for new nurses, guiding them in their clinical practice and professional development. The preceptor provides hands-on training, support, and feedback to help new nurses transition smoothly into their roles. Choice A is incorrect because a nurse preceptor focuses on mentoring and educating new nurses, not supervising all nursing staff. Choice C is incorrect as the role of a preceptor is not to direct nursing services but to support individual nurses. Choice D is incorrect as a preceptor primarily focuses on mentoring new nurses, not coordinating patient care for the entire unit.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Terminate. If a staff member does not respond to discipline, termination may be necessary to maintain discipline and uphold organizational policies. Confronting (choice B) may not always be effective in resolving the issue. Describing the behavior (choice C) may not lead to immediate action. Determining awareness (choice D) is not sufficient if the behavior continues. Termination is a last resort to ensure accountability and maintain a disciplined work environment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) requires healthcare providers to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive. Step 2: New nurse graduates need to be aware of legal requirements regarding advance directives to ensure compliance. Step 3: Educating nurses on the PSDA empowers them to advocate for patients' autonomy and informed decision-making. Step 4: Option A is correct as it aligns with legal obligations and ethical considerations related to advance directives. Summary: - Option A is correct as it pertains to legal requirements under the PSDA. - Option B is incorrect as advance directives typically focus on healthcare decisions, not financial ones. - Option C is incorrect as it refers to a living will, which is different from an advance directive. - Option D is incorrect as it confuses the role of a health-care surrogate with the purpose of an advance directive.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should assess patient C, the 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome showing signs of poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa, first. This patient's condition indicates severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which are medical emergencies requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications like renal failure or cardiovascular collapse. Assessing and addressing the patient's dehydration status and electrolyte levels are the priority to stabilize the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment and intervention compared to patient C.