Which of the following are characteristics of the stage of infection known as full stage of illness? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) The presence of specific signs and symptoms indicates the full stage of illness. In the full stage of illness, the body's immune response is actively fighting the infection, leading to the manifestation of specific signs and symptoms such as fever, inflammation, and other systemic responses to the invading pathogen. Option A is incorrect because it describes the incubation period, which is the interval between pathogen invasion and the onset of symptoms. Option C is incorrect because organism growth and multiplication occur during the prodromal stage, not the full stage of illness. Option D is incorrect as it describes the resolution stage when the signs and symptoms gradually disappear as the body successfully fights off the infection, not the full stage of illness. In an educational context, understanding the stages of infection is crucial for healthcare professionals to recognize and manage infections effectively. Knowing the characteristics of each stage helps in early identification, appropriate treatment, and prevention of the spread of infections in healthcare settings. This knowledge is essential for passing exams like the NCLEX and providing safe patient care.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Once a patient has had PCP pneumonia, they are unlikely to get it again. This is because PCP pneumonia is caused by a specific opportunistic pathogen (Pneumocystis jirovecii) that usually does not reinfect individuals who have developed immunity to it. Option A is incorrect because PCP pneumonia can occur at CD4 counts below 200, but it can also occur at higher counts, especially in untreated or undiagnosed cases. Option B is incorrect as prophylaxis is recommended in all HIV-infected individuals with a CD4 count below 200 to prevent the first episode of PCP pneumonia, not for repeat occurrences. Option C is incorrect as the characteristic CXR finding for PCP pneumonia is bilateral ground-glass opacities, not diffuse infiltrates. Educationally, understanding the specific characteristics of PCP pneumonia in AIDS patients is crucial for nurses and healthcare professionals caring for HIV-infected individuals. This knowledge informs appropriate prophylactic measures, timely diagnosis, and effective treatment strategies to improve patient outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality associated with opportunistic infections in this population.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, advising the previously well 25-week pregnant woman to check her serology (Option A) is the most appropriate course of action. Checking her serology will help determine if she is immune to chickenpox. If she is immune, she is not at risk. Option B, which suggests administering zoster immunoglobulin if serology is negative, is incorrect because zoster immunoglobulin is not indicated for routine exposure to chickenpox. Option C, prophylactic aciclovir if serology is negative, is also incorrect as aciclovir is not routinely recommended for exposure to chickenpox in pregnant women. From an educational standpoint, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to understand the implications of infectious diseases, especially during pregnancy. By advising the pregnant woman to check her serology, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding the management of potential exposures to infectious diseases, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the unborn child.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate anti-tetanus regimen for the 56-year-old man with a penetrating wound contaminated with debris and a history of tetanus vaccination is option C) ADT only. This is because he has a reliable record of having received 3 doses of tetanus vaccine in the past, which indicates he has developed immunity to tetanus. ADT (Adult Diphtheria Tetanus) provides adequate coverage for tetanus in individuals who have previously received the primary series of tetanus vaccinations. Option A) ADT plus tetanus Ig is not necessary in this case because the patient's history of tetanus vaccination suggests that he does not need additional passive immunization with tetanus Ig. Option B) Tetanus Ig only is not needed as the patient has a documented history of adequate tetanus vaccination. Option D) Child diphtheria tetanus is incorrect as it is not appropriate for an adult patient, especially one with a history of tetanus vaccination. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding individual patient histories, especially regarding tetanus vaccination status, in determining the appropriate anti-tetanus regimen. It reinforces the principles of evidence-based practice and tailored patient care based on immunization records and guidelines.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question about erysipelas, a skin infection caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, option C is the correct answer. Bacteremia (presence of bacteria in the bloodstream) is not common in lower extremity manifestations of erysipelas. Option A is true because erysipelas can indeed affect the face and scalp in infants and the elderly due to their relatively weaker immune systems in these areas. Option B is also correct as erysipelas can progress to skin desquamation, which is the shedding of the outer layers of the skin. Option D is true as fever is a common symptom of erysipelas due to the body's immune response to the bacterial infection. Educationally, understanding the key clinical manifestations and complications of erysipelas is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially nurses preparing for the NCLEX exam. Knowing the typical presentation of erysipelas helps in early recognition and appropriate management of the infection. Remembering that bacteremia is less common in lower extremity manifestations than in other forms of erysipelas is essential for accurate clinical decision-making.