Which of the following antiseizure drugs has a high risk of causing cognitive side effects such as memory impairment and confusion?

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Question 1 of 5

Which of the following antiseizure drugs has a high risk of causing cognitive side effects such as memory impairment and confusion?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Topiramate. Topiramate is known for its high risk of causing cognitive side effects, such as memory impairment and confusion, due to its mechanism of action on neurotransmitters. Phenytoin (B), Valproate (C), and Gabapentin (D) are less likely to cause significant cognitive side effects compared to Topiramate. Phenytoin is more associated with motor coordination issues, Valproate with weight gain and liver toxicity, and Gabapentin with sedation and dizziness. Therefore, based on the pharmacological profile of each drug, Topiramate stands out as the drug with a high risk of cognitive side effects.

Question 2 of 5

Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase (COX) in CNS?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 3 of 5

The principal mechanism of action of antidepressant agents is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because antidepressants primarily work by blocking the reuptake pumps of serotonin or norepinephrine, increasing the levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. This leads to enhanced neurotransmission and improved mood regulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the primary mechanism of action of antidepressants. Stabilization of dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors (A) is not the main mechanism, inhibition of storage of serotonin and epinephrine (B) is not how antidepressants work, and stimulation of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors (D) is not the primary mechanism for antidepressant effects.

Question 4 of 5

Indicate the CNS stimulant which is a piperidine derivative:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Meridil. Meridil is a CNS stimulant that is a piperidine derivative. Piperidine is a chemical structure that is present in the drug Meridil, making it the correct choice. Amphetamine (B) is not a piperidine derivative; it belongs to the phenethylamine class. Caffeine (C) is a xanthine derivative. Sydnophen (D) is not a piperidine derivative but a sympathomimetic amine. Therefore, based on the chemical structure and classification, Meridil is the only option that fits the criteria of being a piperidine derivative.

Question 5 of 5

Flumazenil given intravenously:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose. Step 2: Given intravenously, it acts rapidly to competitively inhibit the effects of benzodiazepines. Step 3: Flumazenil has a short half-life of about 1 hour, resulting in a rapid onset but short duration of action. Step 4: Therefore, choice B is correct as it accurately describes the pharmacokinetics of flumazenil. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because flumazenil does not have an intermediate onset and duration of action of about 2 hours, an effect lasting 3-5 hours, or a duration of action longer than 6 hours.

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