ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following antipsychotic agents is considered to be the most potent and, thus, have the highest risk of extrapyramidal symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluphenazine, a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic, strongly blocks D2 receptors, requiring lower doses for efficacy but increasing EPS risk (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism) due to intense dopamine antagonism in the nigrostriatal pathway. Thioridazine and chlorpromazine, low-potency first-generation drugs, have weaker D2 affinity, causing more sedation and anticholinergic effects than EPS. Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has low D2 potency and minimal EPS. Clozapine avoids EPS with broad receptor activity. Fluphenazine's potency, measured by dose equivalence and clinical data, correlates with its elevated EPS risk, distinguishing it here.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is admitted to the hospital in chronic renal failure and is on several medications. What best describes the nurse's assessment of this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic renal failure impairs kidney excretion, critical for drugs cleared renally-like metformin-raising toxicity risk if doses aren't adjusted, a targeted concern. Liver compensation aids metabolism, not excretion, so effectiveness isn't assured. Toxicity from all drugs assumes universal renal clearance, too broad. Decreased effectiveness ignores accumulation risks. Assessing for renal-excreted drugs' toxicity aligns with kidney function's role, ensuring safety by checking specific drug profiles.
Question 3 of 5
All of the following are eicosanoids, except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bradykinin is not an eicosanoid. Eicosanoids are signaling molecules derived from arachidonic acid or other polyunsaturated fatty acids, including prostaglandins, prostacyclins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes. Bradykinin, on the other hand, is a peptide that functions as a mediator of inflammation and pain by promoting vasodilation and increasing vascular permeability.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient. The nurse will anticipate administering which medication to this patient to help prevent thrombus formation caused by slow venous blood flow?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low-molecular-weight heparin is commonly administered to postoperative patients to help prevent thrombus formation caused by slow venous blood flow. This medication works by inhibiting the formation of blood clots. It is considered safer and more effective than unfractionated heparin in preventing venous thromboembolism in surgical patients. Aspirin and clopidogrel are antiplatelet medications that are more commonly used for preventing arterial thrombosis rather than venous thrombosis. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication used to dissolve existing blood clots, rather than prevent their formation.
Question 5 of 5
Fluvoxamine:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fluvoxamine inhibits CYP450 enzymes. It is not an MAOI, has weak anticholinergic effects, and does not require weekly blood counts.