Which of the following antienzymes is an aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor?

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Cardiovascular Drug Therapy Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following antienzymes is an aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Disulfiram is a known aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor, used in the treatment of alcohol abuse. 2. It works by blocking the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde. 3. This accumulation causes unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed, discouraging its consumption. 4. Tazobactam and Sulbactam are beta-lactamase inhibitors, not related to aldehyde dehydrogenase. 5. Aminocaproic acid is a fibrinolysis inhibitor, not associated with aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibition. Summary: Disulfiram is the correct answer as it is a known aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor, while the other choices are unrelated to this enzyme inhibition.

Question 2 of 5

Recommended phosphorus daily allowance is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (900-1200 mg) because phosphorus is an essential mineral required for various bodily functions like bone health and energy metabolism. The recommended daily allowance varies depending on age, gender, and health status, but generally falls within the range of 900-1200 mg for adults. Choice B (600-900 g) is incorrect because this amount is too high for phosphorus intake and could lead to potential health issues. Choice C (25 g) is incorrect as it is an extremely high amount of phosphorus intake, far exceeding the recommended daily allowance and could be harmful to health. Choice D (1.5-4 mg) is incorrect because this amount is too low for phosphorus intake and would not meet the body's daily requirements for this essential mineral.

Question 3 of 5

The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril). It is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased calcium excretion in urine. Amiloride (B) inhibits sodium reabsorption in the collecting duct but does not affect calcium excretion. Furosemide (C) acts on the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and calcium reabsorption, increasing calcium excretion. Acetazolamide (D) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that increases calcium excretion by causing metabolic acidosis and reducing calcium reabsorption.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following drugs is a gastric acid resistant:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Penicillin V. Penicillin V is gastric acid-resistant due to its stability against the acidic environment of the stomach, allowing it to be absorbed intact in the intestine. Penicillin G (choice A) is not acid-resistant and is inactivated by gastric acid. Carbenicillin (choice C) and Procain penicillin (choice D) are not designed to be acid-resistant and would be inactivated in the stomach as well. Penicillin V is the only option that can withstand the acidic conditions of the stomach, making it the correct choice in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

All of the following agents are the first-line antimycobacterial drugs EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Streptomycin. First-line antimycobacterial drugs are those recommended as initial treatment for Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections. Streptomycin is considered a second-line drug due to its potential for serious side effects and development of resistance. Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, and Isoniazid are all first-line drugs supported by extensive clinical evidence and are preferred for initial therapy. Streptomycin is reserved for cases where first-line drugs are contraindicated or ineffective. Therefore, choosing Streptomycin as the correct answer is logical based on its classification as a second-line antimycobacterial drug.

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