ATI RN
Peter Attia Drugs Cardiovascular Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following antidepressants is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) because it specifically targets the reuptake of serotonin in the brain, leading to increased levels of serotonin available for neurotransmission. Phenelzine (A) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, Desipramine (B) is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Maprotiline (C) is a tetracyclic antidepressant. These medications work through different mechanisms than SSRIs and do not specifically target serotonin reuptake. Therefore, they are not classified as SSRIs.
Question 2 of 5
Substances causing narco- and glue sniffings are all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antipsychotic drugs. Narco- and glue sniffing involve inhalation of substances for their mind-altering effects. Antipsychotic drugs are not typically abused for recreational purposes due to their sedative effects and lack of euphoria. Stimulants (choice A), psychedelics (choice C), and sedative drugs (choice D) are commonly misused for their psychoactive properties, leading to addiction and harmful effects on the body. Therefore, antipsychotic drugs do not fit the profile of substances commonly associated with narco- and glue sniffing.
Question 3 of 5
Neuroleptanalgesia has all of the following properties EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because hypertension is not a common consequence of neuroleptanalgesia. Droperidol and fentanyl are commonly used (A), and it can be combined with nitrous oxide for neuroleptanesthesia (B). Confusion and mental depression are potential adverse effects (D). The key is to recognize that hypertension is not a typical outcome of neuroleptanalgesia, making choice C the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
Choose an emetic drug of central action:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Apomorphine hydrochloride. Apomorphine is an emetic drug that acts centrally by stimulating dopamine receptors in the brain, particularly in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. This stimulation triggers the vomiting reflex. A: Ipecacuanha derivatives are peripheral emetics that work by irritating the stomach lining, leading to vomiting. B: Promethazine is an antiemetic drug that works by blocking dopamine receptors and has no emetic properties. C: Tropisetron is a serotonin receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting, but it does not induce vomiting itself. In summary, apomorphine hydrochloride is the correct answer as it acts centrally to induce vomiting by stimulating dopamine receptors, whereas the other choices do not have central emetic action.
Question 5 of 5
All of the following are recommended at the initial stages of treating patients with heart failure EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker and is not recommended in the initial stages of treating heart failure. ACE inhibitors and diuretics are commonly used to manage heart failure symptoms, while reduced salt intake is essential to prevent fluid retention. Verapamil can lead to negative effects on the heart in some heart failure patients, making it unsuitable for initial treatment. It is crucial to prioritize medications like ACE inhibitors and diuretics that have proven benefits in managing heart failure.