Which of the following antibodies is synthesized by the infant soon after birth?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgM. IgM is the first antibody synthesized by the infant soon after birth. It is produced by B cells in response to initial exposure to antigens. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgG is transferred from mother to fetus, and IgD functions in the early stages of B cell development. Therefore, IgM is the most suitable choice as the antibody synthesized by the infant soon after birth.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reaction type GRUBER. Agglutination reaction in GRUBER involves the clumping of particles due to specific antibodies binding to antigens on the surface. This reaction is commonly used in blood typing and serology tests. A: Western blot is a technique used to detect specific proteins in a sample, not related to agglutination. B: ELISA is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay used to detect antibodies or antigens, not based on agglutination. D: Ascoli ring test is a method to detect the presence of DNA in a sample, not related to agglutination.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The symptoms of optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, and cramps are indicative of ethambutol toxicity. Step 2: Ethambutol is known to cause optic nerve toxicity leading to neuritis, as well as CNS toxicity causing memory impairment. Step 3: Ethambutol can also lead to peripheral neuropathy manifesting as cramps. Step 4: Isoniazid is associated with peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity but not with optic nerve neuritis or memory impairment. Step 5: PASA is not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment and does not cause the described symptoms. Step 6: Rifampicin is known for hepatotoxicity and flu-like symptoms, but not specifically for optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, or cramps. Summary: Ethambutol is the correct answer due to its known side effects of optic nerve toxicity, CNS toxicity, and peripheral neuropathy, which align with the presented symptoms. Ison

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B (Gamma Interferon) is the correct answer: 1. Gamma Interferon is a type of immunomodulator that helps regulate the immune response. 2. It activates macrophages and enhances the immune system's ability to fight infections. 3. Rifampin is an antibiotic, not an immunomodulator. 4. Hexacima and Pentaxim are combination vaccines, not immunomodulators. In summary, Gamma Interferon is the correct answer as it directly influences the immune response, while the other choices are not immunomodulators.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two-layer. In gram-positive bacteria, the cell envelope consists of two layers: the thick peptidoglycan layer and the cytoplasmic membrane. The peptidoglycan layer is much thicker compared to gram-negative bacteria, providing structural support and protection. The cytoplasmic membrane is located beneath the peptidoglycan layer and serves as a barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment. The other choices are incorrect because gram-positive bacteria do have a cell envelope, it is composed of two layers, not three layers, and it is not just a single layer. Choice D is incorrect as it states that there is no cell envelope in gram-positive bacteria, which is not true.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Microaerophiles. These bacteria grow best in environments with low oxygen levels. They require oxygen for respiration but at lower concentrations than what is present in the atmosphere. This allows them to thrive in conditions where oxygen is limited but not completely absent. A: Facultative anaerobes can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. B: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for growth. D: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and typically grow in anaerobic environments. In summary, microaerophiles are the correct choice as they specifically thrive in low oxygen environments, distinguishing them from the other options.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-negative stain. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, as indicated by the bluish-green pus color. This bacterium has an outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain, making it appear pink/red after the counterstain with safranin in Gram staining. The other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not typically form spores (B), has a rod-shaped morphology rather than a coccal form (C), and does not exhibit cell pairing (D).

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Polymorphonuclear leukocyte. APCs are specialized immune cells that present antigens to T cells. B cells and dendritic cells are classic examples of APCs, as they can efficiently present antigens. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes, such as neutrophils, are not considered traditional APCs because they are primarily involved in phagocytosis and killing of pathogens rather than antigen presentation. Therefore, they do not play a significant role in initiating adaptive immune responses. The incorrect choices are A (B cell) and C (Dendritic cell) because they are both well-known antigen-presenting cells in the immune system. Choice D (All of the above) is incorrect because B cells and dendritic cells are indeed antigen-presenting cells.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters indicates a staphylococcal species. The fact that the bacteria are catalase-positive and coagulase-negative further narrow it down to Staphylococcus epidermidis, as this species fits all the given characteristics. - Choice B, Staphylococcus aureus, is coagulase-positive. - Choice C, Streptococcus pyogenes, is a streptococcal species, not staphylococcal. - Choice D, Enterococcus faecalis, is a Gram-positive cocci but is catalase-negative and not typically found in clusters.