ATI RN
microbiology an evolving science test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following antibodies is synthesized by the infant soon after birth?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgM. IgM is the first antibody synthesized by the infant soon after birth. It is produced by B cells in response to initial exposure to antigens. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgG is transferred from mother to fetus, and IgD functions in the early stages of B cell development. Therefore, IgM is the most suitable choice as the antibody synthesized by the infant soon after birth.
Question 2 of 9
Anti-influenza drugs that target the neuraminidase are;
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Relenza and Tamiflu. Both Relenza and Tamiflu are anti-influenza drugs that target the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, thereby inhibiting its replication and spread. Maxi Grip (A) is not an anti-influenza drug, Theraflu (B) contains different active ingredients, and Amantadine and Rimantadine (C) target a different viral protein, M2 ion channel. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically target neuraminidase for influenza treatment.
Question 3 of 9
Risk factor for the development of infection is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: all of them. Malignant disease weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Cytostatic therapy suppresses the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Premature birth can lead to underdeveloped immune systems, making babies more prone to infections. Therefore, all three choices are risk factors for the development of infections. Other choices are incorrect because each individual risk factor listed contributes to an increased susceptibility to infections.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with probable liver abscess was delivered to a surgical department. The patient for a long time had been on an assignment in an African country and had recurrent cases of gastrointestinal disturbance. What protozoan disease can it be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of gastrointestinal disturbance and liver abscess are indicative of an infection with Entamoeba histolytica, the protozoan parasite responsible for amebiasis. The patient's travel history to an African country also increases the likelihood of contracting this disease, as it is more prevalent in tropical regions. Toxoplasmosis (A) is primarily associated with exposure to cat feces, Leishmaniasis (B) is transmitted through sandfly bites, and Malaria (C) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through mosquito bites. Therefore, these options are incorrect given the patient's presentation and travel history.
Question 5 of 9
Agglutination reaction is one of the following:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reaction type GRUBER. Agglutination reaction in GRUBER involves the clumping of particles due to specific antibodies binding to antigens on the surface. This reaction is commonly used in blood typing and serology tests. A: Western blot is a technique used to detect specific proteins in a sample, not related to agglutination. B: ELISA is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay used to detect antibodies or antigens, not based on agglutination. D: Ascoli ring test is a method to detect the presence of DNA in a sample, not related to agglutination.
Question 6 of 9
Following treatment with a highly efficient anti-tuberculosis drug a 48-yearold female developed optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, cramps. Which of these anti-TB drugs had the patient taken?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The symptoms of optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, and cramps are indicative of ethambutol toxicity. Step 2: Ethambutol is known to cause optic nerve toxicity leading to neuritis, as well as CNS toxicity causing memory impairment. Step 3: Ethambutol can also lead to peripheral neuropathy manifesting as cramps. Step 4: Isoniazid is associated with peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity but not with optic nerve neuritis or memory impairment. Step 5: PASA is not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment and does not cause the described symptoms. Step 6: Rifampicin is known for hepatotoxicity and flu-like symptoms, but not specifically for optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, or cramps. Summary: Ethambutol is the correct answer due to its known side effects of optic nerve toxicity, CNS toxicity, and peripheral neuropathy, which align with the presented symptoms. Ison
Question 7 of 9
Drug of first choice for the treatment of syphilis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Penicillin. Penicillin is the drug of first choice for treating syphilis due to its effectiveness in eradicating the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which causes syphilis. It is the most reliable treatment with well-established efficacy. Gentamicin (A), ciprofloxacin (C), and chloramphenicol (D) are not recommended for treating syphilis as they are not effective against the specific bacteria causing the infection. Penicillin remains the gold standard for syphilis treatment.
Question 8 of 9
The presence of E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: colonization. E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx indicate colonization rather than being part of the normal resident flora. Colonization refers to the presence of these bacteria on body surfaces without causing harm. They are not considered normal flora in the pharynx but rather transient or opportunistic pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because these bacteria are not part of the normal resident flora of the pharynx. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that these bacteria are both normal flora and colonization, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as there is evidence of bacterial presence, indicating colonization.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements for genus Klebsiella is correct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Klebsiella species have a real capsule, which is a distinguishing feature used for their identification. This capsule helps them evade the host immune response. Additionally, Klebsiella species are non-motile, meaning they do not possess flagella for movement. Choices B and C are incorrect because Klebsiella species are facultative anaerobes and do not form spores under any conditions. Choice D is also incorrect as option A is the correct statement for genus Klebsiella.